ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client is receiving chemotherapy and develops stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Apply warm compresses to the mouth
- B. Rinse mouth with alcohol-free mouthwash
- C. Increase fluid intake
- D. Clean the mouth gently with a soft toothbrush after meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply warm compresses to the mouth. Stomatitis is an inflammation of the mucous lining in the mouth and can be a side effect of chemotherapy. Warm compresses can help soothe the affected area and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the mouth. Choice C is also a good intervention as increasing fluid intake can help keep the mouth moist and promote healing. However, the most direct intervention for soothing and healing the affected area is applying warm compresses. Choice D is incorrect because using a firm toothbrush can be too harsh and cause further irritation.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect from the prescribed levothyroxine?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Weight loss
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect of levothyroxine. Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing the body with thyroid hormone. Tachycardia, or a fast heart rate, can indicate an overdosage or increased sensitivity to levothyroxine. Bradycardia, slow heart rate, weight loss, and increased appetite are not typically associated with adverse effects of levothyroxine. Bradycardia may actually be a symptom of untreated hypothyroidism.
3. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medication class benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the below clients?
- A. A client with glaucoma
- B. A client with renal failure
- C. A client with hypertension
- D. A client with insomnia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzodiazepines should be used cautiously in clients with glaucoma because these medications can increase intraocular pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because renal failure, hypertension, and insomnia are not contraindications for administering benzodiazepines.
5. A nurse is caring for a client taking ciprofloxacin for an infection. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the client education?
- A. Constipation
- B. Tendon rupture
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Nasal congestion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tendon rupture. Ciprofloxacin belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, which is associated with the adverse effect of tendon rupture. Tendon rupture is a severe but rare side effect that can occur with the use of ciprofloxacin. Educating the client about this potential adverse effect is crucial to promote awareness and early recognition of symptoms, such as tendon pain, swelling, or inflammation. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and are less relevant for client education in this scenario.
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