Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Isolate the client in a private room.
• B. Administer isoniazid (INH) as prescribed.
• C. Schedule the client for a chest x-ray.
• D. Begin a 9-month course of medication therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia?

• A. Monitoring for infection
• B. Monitoring nutritional status
• C. Monitoring electrolyte levels
• D. Monitoring liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for infection. In patients with acute leukemia, the most common cause of death is usually infection or bleeding. By closely monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, altered mental status, or elevated white blood cell count, healthcare providers can intervene promptly. Monitoring nutritional status (choice B) is important but does not directly address the most common cause of death among leukemia patients. Monitoring electrolyte levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are also important assessments in cancer patients; however, they are not the most direct assessment to address the leading cause of death in patients with leukemia.

3. The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Presence of mucous membranes
• C. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• D. Inspiratory stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.

4. A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patients needs for physical activity?

• A. Teach the patient about the risks of immobility and the benefits of exercise.
• B. Assist the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated.
• C. Collaborate with the physical therapist to arrange for stair exercises.
• D. Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For patients undergoing consolidation therapy for leukemia, severe fatigue is a common side effect of treatment due to factors such as anemia, decreased nutritional intake, and the body’s response to chemotherapy. While exercise is beneficial, the patient's fatigue may limit their ability to engage in strenuous activity. Assisting the patient to sit in a chair during awake times is a practical way to encourage some physical activity while respecting their fatigue levels. This intervention helps prevent complications associated with immobility, such as muscle atrophy and venous stasis, without overwhelming the patient. It allows the patient to engage in light activity that is manageable and promotes recovery.

5. Which of the following terms is another name for Billroth I?

• A. Gastroduodenostomy
• B. Gastrojejunostomy
• C. Gastroileostomy
• D. Gastrostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.

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