a client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the mantoux test which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action
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Nursing Elites

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Oncology Questions

1. A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.

2. All of the following are warning signs of cancer except:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Blood-tinged sputum is not a typical warning sign of cancer but rather a symptom that can indicate other serious conditions like respiratory issues or infections. Choices A, B, and C are common warning signs of cancer: palpable lumps or bumps, unexplained bruises, and persistent digestive issues are often associated with cancer and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional for further assessment and diagnosis.

3. Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of conization with a client who has microinvasive cervical cancer. Which complication, if identified by the client, indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Ovarian perforation.' Ovarian perforation is not a complication associated with conization; therefore, if the client identifies this as a potential complication, it indicates a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Infection, hemorrhage, and cervical stenosis are potential complications of conization, so identifying them would not necessarily indicate a need for further teaching.

4. An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Invading healthy host tissues. Invasion is the process where malignant cells grow into surrounding healthy tissues, allowing the cancer to spread to other parts of the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adhering to primary tumor cells does not involve the transfer of cells to other locations, inducing mutation of cells of another organ is not a mechanism of cell transfer, and phagocytizing healthy cells refers to the process of engulfing and digesting cells, which is not a method of cancer cell transfer.

5. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy.' Indolent neoplasms are characterized by their slow growth and relatively low malignancy potential; however, they do have the capability to progress to malignancy over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they make assumptions about specific types of leukemia and hemophilia, which are not necessarily related to the presence of an indolent neoplasm.

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