a client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the mantoux test which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action
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Nursing Elites

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Oncology Questions

1. A client is diagnosed as having a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to schedule the client for a chest x-ray. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to TB, but it does not confirm active disease. A chest x-ray is necessary to assess the presence of active TB disease. Isolating the client in a private room (Choice A) is not necessary based solely on a positive Mantoux test result. Administering isoniazid (INH) (Choice B) or beginning a 9-month course of medication therapy (Choice D) is premature without confirming active TB through a chest x-ray.

2. Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For premenopausal women, the best time to perform a breast self-examination (BSE) is immediately after their menstrual period ends. This timing is ideal because hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle can cause breast tissue to become swollen and tender, making it more difficult to detect any lumps or changes. After the menstrual period, breast tissue is usually softer and less lumpy, allowing for a more accurate assessment of any abnormalities.

3. The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse's assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS). Tumor lysis syndrome is a potential complication after treatment for certain cancers, including non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The rapid breakdown of cancer cells in response to treatment can lead to metabolic abnormalities, such as hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia, which can be life-threatening. Choice B, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), is not typically associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice C, Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), is more commonly seen in conditions such as sepsis or trauma, not directly related to non-Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common complication following treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

4. A client hospitalized for chemotherapy has a hemoglobin of 6.1 mg/dL (61 mmol/L). The client is symptomatic but refuses blood transfusions. What medication does the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, which is important for a client who refuses blood transfusions.

5. A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma and the client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which description of this disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that involves the malignant proliferation of plasma cells, which are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies. In multiple myeloma, these abnormal plasma cells accumulate in the bone marrow, where they interfere with the production of normal blood cells and lead to the formation of tumors in the bones. This can cause bone pain, fractures, anemia, and impaired immune function. The excessive production of abnormal antibodies can also result in kidney damage and other systemic complications.

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