Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma and is monitoring the client for signs of hypercalcemia. Which symptom would be an early indication?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Polyphagia
• C. Polydipsia
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with multiple myeloma, hypercalcemia is a common complication due to the release of calcium from the bones as a result of osteolytic lesions. One of the early symptoms of hypercalcemia is polyuria, or increased urine output. This occurs because elevated calcium levels can lead to impaired renal function and increased renal excretion of calcium, which results in increased urine production. Early recognition of polyuria can help prompt further evaluation and management of hypercalcemia, as untreated hypercalcemia can lead to more severe complications.

2. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

3. A client with long-standing heart failure being treated for cancer has received a dose of ondansetron for nausea. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Assess the client for a headache or dizziness.
• B. Request a prescription for cardiac monitoring.
• C. Instruct the client to change positions slowly.
• D. Weigh the client daily before eating.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ondansetron can prolong the QT interval, making cardiac monitoring essential in this scenario.

4. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

• A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
• B. Notify the health care provider
• C. Continue to monitor the client
• D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

5. A clinic patient is being treated for polycythemia vera, and the nurse is providing health education. What practice should the nurse recommend to prevent the complications of this health problem?

• A. Avoiding natural sources of vitamin K
• B. Avoiding altitudes of 1500 feet (457 meters)
• C. Performing active range of motion exercises daily
• D. Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs. Patients with polycythemia vera are at risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), so it is essential to avoid tight and restrictive clothing that can impede circulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding natural sources of vitamin K, altitudes of 1500 feet, and performing active range of motion exercises are not directly related to preventing complications of polycythemia vera.

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