ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. The clinical nurse educator is presenting health promotion education to a patient who will be treated for non-Hodgkin lymphoma on an outpatient basis. The nurse should recommend which of the following actions?
- A. Avoiding direct sun exposure in excess of 15 minutes daily
- B. Avoiding grapefruit juice and fresh grapefruit
- C. Avoiding highly crowded public places
- D. Using an electric shaver rather than a razor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) often experience a compromised immune system due to both the disease itself and the effects of treatments like chemotherapy and radiation, which cause myelosuppression (decreased production of blood cells, including white blood cells). This puts them at significant risk for infections. Avoiding crowded places is a crucial preventive measure, as it reduces the patient's exposure to pathogens that could lead to infections, which can be particularly severe due to their weakened immune system.
2. The nurse is caring for a female client experiencing neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy and develops a plan of care for the client. The nurse plans to:
- A. Restrict all visitors
- B. Restrict fluid intake
- C. Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene
- D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin breakdown
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients experiencing neutropenia due to chemotherapy, the immune system is significantly compromised, leaving the client highly susceptible to infections. Meticulous hand hygiene is one of the most effective ways to prevent infections in neutropenic patients. Teaching the client and their family the importance of frequent and proper handwashing helps reduce the transmission of harmful pathogens that could lead to severe infections in the neutropenic client. This simple but essential intervention is crucial in maintaining a safe environment.
3. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
- A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Continue to monitor the client
- D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
4. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patient's disease?
- A. Document the color of the patient's palms and face during each visit.
- B. Follow the patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time.
- C. Document the patient's response to erythropoietin injections.
- D. Follow the trends of the patient's hematocrit.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patient's hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Hematocrit levels are a key indicator in assessing the progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and C are not the most appropriate methods for gauging the course of polycythemia vera. Monitoring the color of the patient's palms and face, or their response to erythropoietin injections, may not provide an accurate reflection of the disease's progression. Similarly, while erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be affected in polycythemia vera, it is not the primary marker for monitoring the disease's course.
5. You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
- A. Palliative
- B. Reconstructive
- C. Salvage
- D. Prophylactic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative. Palliative surgery is aimed at relieving symptoms and improving quality of life when a cure is not possible. In this scenario, where the cancer has recurred and metastasized, the goal of surgery would be to alleviate symptoms rather than to cure the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because reconstructive surgery aims to restore function or appearance, salvage surgery aims to remove or salvage tissue to prevent further complications, and prophylactic surgery aims to prevent the development of a condition rather than treat its progression.
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