ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. When educating a client about to undergo a pacemaker insertion, the nurse explains the normal phases of cardiac muscle tissue. During the repolarization phase, the nurse will stress that membranes must be repolarized before they can be re-excited. Within the cell, the nurse understands that:
- A. Potassium channels open while sodium channels close, causing repolarization to the resting state.
- B. The influx of calcium is the primary stimulus for the repolarization of cardiac tissue.
- C. Only the electrical activity within the heart will determine when repolarization occurs.
- D. The cell membranes need to stay calm, resulting in muscle tissue becoming refractory.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the repolarization phase of cardiac muscle tissue, potassium channels open while sodium channels close. This process is crucial for the cardiac muscle to return to its resting state after depolarization. Potassium moving out of the cell and sodium staying out helps reset the membrane potential and prepare the cell for the next depolarization phase. The influx of calcium is not the primary stimulus for repolarization in cardiac tissue; it is mainly involved in the depolarization phase. While electrical activity within the heart influences repolarization, the specific ion movements described in choice A are what physiologically drive repolarization. Cell membranes need to be in an active state during repolarization, not calm, to facilitate the necessary ion movements for muscle tissue to properly function.
2. A 51-year-old woman has the following clinical findings: thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema. These findings are consistent with:
- A. Subacute thyroiditis.
- B. Autoimmune thyroiditis.
- C. Graves disease.
- D. Hashimoto’s disease.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The clinical findings of thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema are classic features of Graves disease, an autoimmune disorder that results in hyperthyroidism. Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and pretibial edema (swelling in the lower legs) are particularly associated with Graves disease due to the autoimmune stimulation of the thyroid gland, leading to increased thyroid hormone production. Subacute thyroiditis (Choice A) typically presents with neck pain and tenderness, while autoimmune thyroiditis (Choice B) is commonly known as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which presents with hypothyroidism symptoms. Hashimoto's disease (Choice D) is characterized by goiter and hypothyroidism, which contrasts with the hyperthyroidism seen in this patient.
3. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?
- A. Has your child received all recommended vaccinations?
- B. Has your child been feeding poorly or showing signs of constipation?
- C. Has your child been exposed to any sick individuals?
- D. Has your child been displaying signs of respiratory distress?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Poor feeding and constipation are common early symptoms of infant botulism, which is caused by a neurotoxin that impairs muscle function. Option A is unrelated to the presentation of botulism. Option C does not directly relate to the symptoms of botulism. Option D is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than the constellation of symptoms seen in botulism.
4. A 55-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?
- A. Avoid taking over-the-counter antacids while on this medication.
- B. This medication may decrease libido.
- C. This medication may take several months to improve symptoms.
- D. This medication may cause increased hair growth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should inform the patient that finasteride may take several months to improve symptoms of BPH. It is essential for patients to understand the delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and compliance. Choice A is incorrect because there is no significant interaction between finasteride and over-the-counter antacids. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride is more commonly associated with decreased libido rather than increased libido. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is known to reduce hair growth rather than increase it.
5. Which scenario would be an example of a child born with congenital insensitivity to pain?
- A. A child who does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli.
- B. A child who cries excessively and has a heightened response to pain.
- C. A child who experiences pain but has difficulty expressing it.
- D. A child who is sensitive to minor stimuli but has a delayed response to severe pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct scenario depicting a child with congenital insensitivity to pain is when the child does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli. This condition is characterized by the inability to feel and react to pain, resulting in a lack of typical responses such as crying or withdrawal when hurt. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a child with heightened pain sensitivity, opposite to the insensitivity seen in the condition. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests the child feels pain but struggles to communicate it, which is not the case with congenital insensitivity to pain. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a child who is sensitive to minor stimuli and has delayed responses to severe pain, which is not indicative of congenital insensitivity to pain.
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