Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client about to undergo a pacemaker insertion, the nurse explains the normal phases of cardiac muscle tissue. During the repolarization phase, the nurse will stress that membranes must be repolarized before they can be re-excited. Within the cell, the nurse understands that:

• A. Potassium channels open while sodium channels close, causing repolarization to the resting state.
• B. The influx of calcium is the primary stimulus for the repolarization of cardiac tissue.
• C. Only the electrical activity within the heart will determine when repolarization occurs.
• D. The cell membranes need to stay calm, resulting in muscle tissue becoming refractory.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the repolarization phase of cardiac muscle tissue, potassium channels open while sodium channels close. This process is crucial for the cardiac muscle to return to its resting state after depolarization. Potassium moving out of the cell and sodium staying out helps reset the membrane potential and prepare the cell for the next depolarization phase. The influx of calcium is not the primary stimulus for repolarization in cardiac tissue; it is mainly involved in the depolarization phase. While electrical activity within the heart influences repolarization, the specific ion movements described in choice A are what physiologically drive repolarization. Cell membranes need to be in an active state during repolarization, not calm, to facilitate the necessary ion movements for muscle tissue to properly function.

2. A 55-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide regarding the use of this medication?

• A. Avoid taking over-the-counter antacids while on this medication.
• B. This medication may decrease libido.
• C. This medication may take several months to improve symptoms.
• D. This medication may cause increased hair growth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: The nurse should inform the patient that finasteride may take several months to improve symptoms of BPH. It is essential for patients to understand the delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and compliance. Choice A is incorrect because there is no significant interaction between finasteride and over-the-counter antacids. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride is more commonly associated with decreased libido rather than increased libido. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is known to reduce hair growth rather than increase it.

3. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?

• A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
• B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
• C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
• D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

4. A patient has suffered from several infections in the last 6 months and unexplained impaired wound healing. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Assess for pain.
• B. Assess for nutritional deficiencies.
• C. Assess genetic tendency for infection.
• D. Assess for edema and decreased hemoglobin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's history of multiple infections and impaired wound healing indicates a potential issue with their immune system and overall health. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Proper nutrition is essential for a healthy immune response and wound healing. Assessing for pain (choice A) may be important but addressing the root cause of the recurrent infections and impaired wound healing is crucial. Genetic tendency for infection (choice C) would be a less immediate concern compared to assessing for nutritional deficiencies. Edema and decreased hemoglobin (choice D) are not the most relevant assessments based on the patient's symptoms.

5. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse be most concerned about?

• A. Increased risk of breast cancer
• B. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• C. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• D. Increased risk of prostate cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Cardiovascular events such as stroke and myocardial infarction are the most concerning adverse effects of testosterone therapy, especially in older patients. Choice A, increased risk of breast cancer, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy in males. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is a potential adverse effect but is not the most concerning. Choice D, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a consideration in patients with a history of prostate cancer or those with prostate carcinoma, not typically in patients receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism.

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