Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client about to undergo a pacemaker insertion, the nurse explains the normal phases of cardiac muscle tissue. During the repolarization phase, the nurse will stress that membranes must be repolarized before they can be re-excited. Within the cell, the nurse understands that:

• A. Potassium channels open while sodium channels close, causing repolarization to the resting state.
• B. The influx of calcium is the primary stimulus for the repolarization of cardiac tissue.
• C. Only the electrical activity within the heart will determine when repolarization occurs.
• D. The cell membranes need to stay calm, resulting in muscle tissue becoming refractory.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the repolarization phase of cardiac muscle tissue, potassium channels open while sodium channels close. This process is crucial for the cardiac muscle to return to its resting state after depolarization. Potassium moving out of the cell and sodium staying out helps reset the membrane potential and prepare the cell for the next depolarization phase. The influx of calcium is not the primary stimulus for repolarization in cardiac tissue; it is mainly involved in the depolarization phase. While electrical activity within the heart influences repolarization, the specific ion movements described in choice A are what physiologically drive repolarization. Cell membranes need to be in an active state during repolarization, not calm, to facilitate the necessary ion movements for muscle tissue to properly function.

2. What is the distinguishing feature of Hodgkin disease noted on histologic exam?

• A. Reed-Sternberg cells
• B. Red-stained cells
• C. Human Papillomavirus
• D. B-cells and T-cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reed-Sternberg cells. Reed-Sternberg cells are large, abnormal B-cells that are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma. These cells are identified on histologic examination of lymph node biopsies from patients with Hodgkin disease. Choice B, 'Red-stained cells,' is vague and does not describe a specific feature of Hodgkin disease. Choice C, 'Human Papillomavirus,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is not caused by HPV. Choice D, 'B-cells and T-cells,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B-cells.

3. Which type of lymphocyte recognizes and eliminates virus-infected cells and cancerous cells?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Macrophages
• C. Natural killer cells
• D. Langerhans cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in recognizing and eliminating virus-infected cells and cancerous cells. Neutrophils (Choice A) are a type of white blood cell involved in fighting infections, mainly through phagocytosis. Macrophages (Choice B) are another type of white blood cell that engulfs and digests cellular debris and pathogens. Langerhans cells (Choice D) are a type of dendritic cell found in the skin and mucosa, primarily involved in antigen presentation.

4. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urinary frequency and urgency
• B. Decreased prostate size
• C. Increased prostate size
• D. Decreased blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased prostate size. Finasteride is a medication used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. By decreasing the size of the prostate, symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency are improved. Choice A is incorrect as the medication aims to decrease, not increase, urinary symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because the goal of finasteride is to reduce, not increase, the prostate size. Choice D is also incorrect as finasteride is not indicated for lowering blood pressure.

5. When teaching a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
• B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with certain antibiotics.
• D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the effectiveness of the contraceptive. It is important for patients to be aware of this interaction to consider additional contraceptive methods during antibiotic therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as no contraceptive method is 100% effective, and oral contraceptives typically require a period of time to reach full effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as taking oral contraceptives with food does not significantly impact their effectiveness.

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