Nursing Elites

1. What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries
• B. Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation
• C. Necrosis of 70% or more of the nephrons secondary to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure
• D. Scar tissue formation throughout the proximal convoluted tubule secondary to toxin-induced collagen synthesis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This inflammation leads to the deposition of immune complexes, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation, which collectively contribute to a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice A is incorrect as decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries would not directly result in decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice C is incorrect as necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure would affect kidney function differently. Choice D is incorrect as scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule due to toxin-induced collagen synthesis is not a typical feature of acute glomerulonephritis.

2. Which clients are at highest risk for pneumonia?

• A. Those in their 20s and 30s and generally healthy
• B. Those who exercise regularly and are not exposed to pathogens
• C. Those who are hospitalized and immunocompromised
• D. Those who have adequate respiratory function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients who are hospitalized and immunocompromised are at the highest risk for pneumonia due to their weakened immune systems. Choice A is incorrect as young and healthy individuals typically have stronger immune systems. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise can actually boost the immune system and reduce the risk of infections. Choice D is incorrect as having adequate respiratory function does not necessarily correlate with the risk of developing pneumonia.

3. In a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax), what is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased hair growth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Tamsulosin is prescribed for patients with BPH to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation helps in relieving the symptoms of BPH, such as decreased urinary flow, frequent urination, and urgency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not increase urinary output but rather improves the flow of urine by relaxing the muscles. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin is not primarily used for reducing blood pressure. Choice D is also incorrect as tamsulosin does not promote increased hair growth.

4. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

• A. “Maybe it’s just caused by aging. This usually happens by age 82.”
• B. “The changes in his behavior came on so quickly! I wasn’t sure what was happening.”
• C. “Dad just didn’t seem to know what he was doing. He would forget what he had for breakfast.”
• D. “Dad has always been so independent. He’s lived alone for years since mom died.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

5. A 44-year-old man presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. He states that he has experienced difficulty climbing stairs and even holding his arms up to comb his hair. Which test is most likely to help confirm the diagnosis?

• A. Electromyography (EMG)
• B. Nerve conduction studies
• C. Muscle biopsy
• D. Blood test for autoantibodies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Electromyography (EMG). EMG is commonly used to diagnose conditions involving muscle weakness and fatigue, such as myasthenia gravis. Nerve conduction studies primarily assess nerve function rather than muscle involvement. While a muscle biopsy can provide valuable information, EMG is more specific for evaluating muscle function in this context. A blood test for autoantibodies may be helpful in certain autoimmune conditions but is not the primary test for confirming the diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms of muscle weakness and fatigue.

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