ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?
- A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
- B. Bacterial invasion
- C. Impaired arterial blood supply
- D. Metaplastic cellular changes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.
2. In a disaster where a building has collapsed, which victim should a nurse attend to first?
- A. A victim who has died of multiple serious injuries
- B. A victim with a partial amputation of a leg who is bleeding profusely
- C. An alert victim who has numerous bruises on the arms and legs
- D. A hysterical victim who has sustained a head injury
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a disaster situation like a building collapse, the nurse should attend to the victim with a partial amputation of a leg who is bleeding profusely first. This victim is at immediate risk of severe blood loss, which can be life-threatening. It is crucial to address life-threatening injuries like severe bleeding before attending to other less urgent cases. The victim with the amputation requires immediate intervention to control bleeding and stabilize their condition. Victims who are already deceased or have less urgent injuries can be attended to after addressing the critical cases.
3. The OR team performs distinct roles for one surgical procedure to be accomplished within a prescribed time frame and deliver a standard patient outcome. While the surgeon performs the surgical procedure, who monitors the status of the client like urine output, blood loss?
- A. Scrub Nurse
- B. Surgeon
- C. Anaesthesiologist
- D. Circulating Nurse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
4. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant drug?
- A. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Sertraline (Zoloft)
- D. Imipramine (Tofranil)
Correct answer: D: Imipramine (Tofranil)
Rationale: Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant drug. This class of medications is used to treat depression, and they work by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help lift mood. On the other hand, Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), and Sertraline (Zoloft) is also an SSRI. Therefore, they are not classified as tricyclic antidepressants.
5. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patient's skin turgor?
- A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults.
- B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy.
- C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
- D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older patients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration is not common among healthy older adults. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration leads to inelastic skin, not sponginess. Choice D is incorrect as skin turgor assessment can be done in patients of any age, including those over 70.
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