a patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot which of the following pathophysiol
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

2. Pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsens:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In peripheral artery disease, pain in the lower extremities worsens with the elevation of the extremity because it diverts blood flow away from the affected area, exacerbating the pain. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Resting doesn't increase blood flow, a dependent position doesn't lead to blood pooling in this context, and pain worsening due to touch or massage is not a typical feature of peripheral artery disease.

3. A 55-year-old man presents with a history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He reports recent onset of a productive cough and hemoptysis. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tuberculosis. The symptoms described - fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, productive cough, and hemoptysis - are classic manifestations of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, commonly affecting the lungs but can also involve other organs. **Choice A: Lung cancer** typically presents with symptoms like persistent cough, chest pain, and shortness of breath, but it is less likely in this case due to the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice B: Pneumonia** can present with productive cough, fever, and chest pain, but it is less likely given the chronicity of symptoms and the presence of hemoptysis. **Choice D: Pulmonary embolism** usually presents with sudden onset shortness of breath, chest pain, and can be associated with risk factors like recent surgery or immobility.

4. A patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when a patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism is an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy has been associated with an elevated risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring cardiovascular health is crucial during testosterone therapy. The other choices are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not primarily linked to liver dysfunction (choice A), prostate cancer (choice C), or bone fractures (choice D).

5. A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.

Similar Questions

Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?
Which immunoglobulin presents the first challenge to the antigen?
A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?
What important instruction should the nurse provide about taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for a patient with endometriosis?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses