Nursing Elites

1. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?

• A. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
• B. Bacterial invasion
• C. Impaired arterial blood supply
• D. Metaplastic cellular changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired arterial blood supply. Dry gangrene is typically caused by impaired arterial blood supply, leading to tissue death without bacterial infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Inappropriate activation of apoptosis is not a common cause of dry gangrene. Bacterial invasion usually leads to wet gangrene, not dry gangrene. Metaplastic cellular changes are not directly associated with the development of dry gangrene.

2. A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following terms is used to describe this finding?

• A. Contraindication
• B. Sign
• C. Symptom
• D. Subjective data

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Sign.' In this scenario, bilateral pitting edema is an objective finding that can be observed by others, making it a sign of heart failure. Choice A, 'Contraindication,' refers to a factor that makes a particular treatment or procedure potentially harmful. Choice C, 'Symptom,' is a subjective indication of a condition experienced by the client. Choice D, 'Subjective data,' is information that is reported by the client but cannot be directly observed or measured.

3. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

• A. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time
• B. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes
• C. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity
• D. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

• A. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack
• B. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding
• C. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release
• D. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by simultaneous clotting and bleeding throughout the body. This imbalance in the body's clotting system leads to the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels, which can consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the characteristic feature of DIC, which involves both clotting and bleeding.

5. Why is a beta-blocker prescribed to a client with a history of myocardial infarction?

• A. To reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To prevent arrhythmias.
• D. To prevent the development of angina.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary reason for administering a beta-blocker to a client with a history of myocardial infarction is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By reducing myocardial oxygen demand, beta-blockers help decrease the workload on the heart, making it easier for the heart to function effectively. This is crucial for clients with a history of myocardial infarction to prevent further damage to the heart. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers do not aim to increase cardiac output; instead, they help improve cardiac function by reducing workload. Choice C is incorrect because while beta-blockers can help prevent certain arrhythmias, the primary reason for their use in this case is to reduce myocardial oxygen demand. Choice D is incorrect as preventing angina is not the primary purpose of administering beta-blockers to a client with a history of myocardial infarction.

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