ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. How can a colony-stimulating factor affect the patient's erythrocyte count?
- A. It stimulates the growth of red blood cells.
- B. It suppresses T-cell production.
- C. It inhibits protein synthesis.
- D. It stimulates antibody production.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Colony-stimulating factors are substances that stimulate the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, so a colony-stimulating factor would specifically stimulate the growth of red blood cells, leading to an increase in the patient's erythrocyte count. Choice B is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not suppress T-cell production. Choice C is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not stimulate antibody production; they primarily affect the production of blood cells.
2. A 67-year-old man is receiving androgen therapy for osteoporosis. What laboratory test should the nurse monitor during this therapy?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- D. Cholesterol levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During androgen therapy, monitoring liver function tests is crucial to detect any signs of liver dysfunction. Androgens can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to monitor enzymes such as ALT and AST. While blood glucose levels and cholesterol levels are important parameters to monitor in certain situations, they are not the primary focus during androgen therapy for osteoporosis. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) monitoring is more relevant in the context of prostate health and cancer screening, not specifically during androgen therapy for osteoporosis.
3. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?
- A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
- B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
- C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
- D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.
4. The early stages of atheroma development are characterized by:
- A. macrophages full of oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL; i.e., foam cells) in the intima
- B. accumulation of lipids in the intima (i.e., fatty streak)
- C. accumulation of proteins such as collagen and elastin (i.e., fibrous cap)
- D. development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the early stages of atheroma development, macrophages accumulate oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and transform into foam cells, leading to the formation of fatty streaks in the intima of blood vessels. This process is a hallmark of the initial stages of atherosclerosis. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the accumulation of lipids in the intima, which is a later event following foam cell formation. Choice C is also incorrect as it refers to the accumulation of proteins forming the fibrous cap, which occurs at a later stage to stabilize the atheroma. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core, typically seen in advanced atherosclerosis rather than the early stages.
5. A patient is to be administered an immunization. The serum contains aluminum phosphate. What route is most appropriate to administer this immunization?
- A. Intramuscularly
- B. Subcutaneously
- C. Intravenously
- D. Orally
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate route to administer an immunization containing aluminum phosphate is intramuscularly. Aluminum phosphate is commonly used as an adjuvant in vaccines to enhance the immune response. Intramuscular administration allows for the vaccine to be delivered into the muscle tissue, where it can be effectively absorbed by the body's immune cells. Subcutaneous administration is not ideal for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate, as it may not elicit the desired immune response. Intravenous administration is typically reserved for specific medications or situations that require rapid absorption into the bloodstream. Oral administration is not suitable for vaccines containing aluminum phosphate as they would be degraded in the gastrointestinal tract.
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