Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. Arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs? pH 7.22, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, Base excess -2, PaO2 78 mm Hg, Saturation 80%, Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Metabolic alkalosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: Respiratory acidosis

Rationale: The ABG values provided indicate respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an increase in PaCO2 above the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). In this case, the pH is 7.22 (below normal) with an elevated PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg. The other values do not suggest metabolic acidosis (which would typically show low bicarbonate levels) or metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the ABGs is respiratory acidosis.

2. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a group of clients with an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse plan to delegate to the AP?

• A. Provide a sitz bath to a client who has a fourth-degree laceration and is 2 days postpartum.
• B. Observe an area of redness on the breast of a client who is 1 day postpartum.
• C. Monitor vital signs during admission of a client who has gestational hypertension.
• D. Change the perineal pad of a client who just transferred from labor and delivery.

Correct answer: Provide a sitz bath to a client who has a fourth-degree laceration and is 2 days postpartum.

Rationale: Delegating the task of providing a sitz bath to a client with a fourth-degree laceration and who is 2 days postpartum to the assistive personnel (AP) is appropriate. This task involves assisting the client with personal hygiene and comfort measures that can be safely performed by the AP under the supervision and direction of the nurse. Tasks like observing redness on the breast, monitoring vital signs during admission for gestational hypertension, and changing perineal pads may require a higher level of assessment and nursing judgment, making them more appropriate for the nurse to perform.

3. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Recheck the client’s temperature in 4 hours
• B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
• C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
• D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section

Correct answer: C: Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid

Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.

4. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client’s lower extremities.
• B. Massage the client’s posterior lower legs.
• C. Place pillows under the client’s knees when resting in bed.
• D. Have the client ambulate.

Correct answer: Have the client ambulate

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.

5. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?

• A. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours
• D. Heart rate of 56/min

Correct answer: Respiratory rate of 16/min

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.

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