ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is being assessed for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?
- A. Localized area of breast tenderness
- B. Pelvic pain
- C. Vaginal discharge with foul odor
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic pain is a common symptom of endometritis, which is an infection of the uterine lining. It is an important finding that warrants further evaluation. Localized area of breast tenderness may indicate mastitis, vaginal discharge with a foul odor could suggest a vaginal infection, and hematuria points towards a urinary tract issue, but they are not specific to endometritis.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients on an intrapartum unit. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider immediately?
- A. A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions
- B. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors
- C. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes
- D. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and an unresolved headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reporting epigastric pain and an unresolved headache. These symptoms indicate severe preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical attention due to the potential risks of complications such as HELLP syndrome or eclampsia. The other options describe concerning situations but do not represent immediate life-threatening conditions like those seen in severe preeclampsia.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
- A. Hydrops fetalis
- B. Hypobilirubinemia
- C. Biliary atresia
- D. Transient clotting difficulties
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.
4. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
5. A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever
- B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting
- C. A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting
- D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports of painless vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
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