ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: Substernal retractions
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
3. Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?
- A. Left atrium
- B. Right atrium
- C. Left ventricle
- D. Right ventricle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, the left atrium. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the pulmonary veins. This blood is then pumped into the left ventricle before being circulated throughout the body. The right atrium, represented by choice B, actually receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena cava. Choices C and D, the left ventricle and right ventricle respectively, are chambers involved in pumping blood out of the heart to the body and lungs, rather than receiving blood from the lungs.
4. A client has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should be made?
- A. Coffee with creamer
- B. Lettuce with sliced avocados
- C. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
Rationale: Chronic pancreatitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the pancreas. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice is a suitable option as it is low in fat. Coffee with creamer and lettuce with sliced avocados are not recommended for individuals with chronic pancreatitis due to their fat content. Choosing options high in fat can exacerbate symptoms and increase the workload on the pancreas, worsening the condition.
5. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
Correct answer: C: Administer oxygen therapy.
Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.