Nursing Elites

1. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?

• A. 15
• B. 60
• C. 10
• D. 30

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.

2. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on the purpose of administering vecuronium to a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication is given to treat infection.
• B. This medication is given to facilitate ventilation.
• C. This medication is given to decrease inflammation.
• D. This medication is given to reduce anxiety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is used to facilitate ventilation by inducing muscle paralysis, which can help improve oxygenation in patients with ARDS. It does not treat infection, decrease inflammation, or reduce anxiety. Understanding the purpose of vecuronium administration is crucial for providing safe and effective care to patients with respiratory distress.

3. A public health nurse is managing several projects for the community. Which of the following interventions should the nurse identify as a primary prevention strategy?

• A. Teaching parenting skills to expectant mothers and their partners.
• B. Conducting mental health screenings at the local community center
• C. Referring clients with obesity to community exercise programs
• D. Providing crisis intervention through a mobile counseling unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is teaching parenting skills to expectant mothers and their partners. This intervention is a primary prevention strategy aimed at educating individuals before a problem or condition develops. By teaching parenting skills, the nurse is promoting healthy behaviors and relationships, which can prevent future issues. The other options involve secondary or tertiary prevention strategies by identifying and treating existing conditions or providing interventions after a problem has occurred.

4. A client is being assessed by a nurse who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Cool, moist skin
• D. Incisional pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chest pain is a critical finding postoperatively, especially after an arterial thrombectomy, as it could indicate complications like myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. It requires immediate attention and further evaluation. Muscle spasms, cool moist skin, and incisional pain are important to assess but not as urgent as chest pain in this scenario.

5. A client has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Potassium level
• C. Creatinine clearance
• D. Prealbumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Generalized petechiae and ecchymoses can indicate a potential issue with platelet function or count. Therefore, the most relevant laboratory test to evaluate this condition would be a platelet count. Platelet count helps assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for clotting and preventing bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels can provide important information about a client's bleeding risk and overall hematologic health.

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