ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
2. A client has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Place the client's left arm on a pillow while he is sitting.
- B. Provide total care in assisting with the client's ADLs.
- C. Encourage mobility and avoid bed rest.
- D. Facilitate feeding by placing food on the left side of the client's mouth when ready to eat.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and assists in maintaining proper positioning and alignment. This intervention is crucial to prevent complications associated with immobility. Providing total care in ADLs may hinder the client's independence and recovery. Encouraging mobility is essential in preventing complications of immobility. Facilitating feeding by placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth helps reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.
3. A client complains of difficulty swallowing when the nurse tries to administer capsule medication. Which of the following measures should the nurse take?
- A. Dissolve the capsule in a glass of water
- B. Break the capsule and give the contents with applesauce
- C. Check the availability of a liquid preparation
- D. Crush the capsule and place it under the tongue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client has difficulty swallowing capsule medication, the nurse should check the availability of a liquid preparation. This is a safer approach and ensures that the medication's integrity is maintained, providing an alternative form that is easier for the client to take. Dissolving the capsule in water (choice A) may alter the medication's effectiveness, breaking the capsule and mixing the contents with applesauce (choice B) is not recommended as it may cause an unpleasant taste, and crushing the capsule and placing it under the tongue (choice D) can be unsafe and affect the medication's absorption.
4. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
5. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
- A. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen
- B. Urinary catheterization
- C. Nasogastric tube insertion
- D. Colostomy irrigation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Surgical asepsis, which involves maintaining a sterile field and preventing contamination in a surgical setting, is required for urinary catheterization as it involves entering a sterile body cavity. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen, nasogastric tube insertion, and colostomy irrigation do not always require surgical asepsis as they involve different levels of sterility and infection control measures.
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