ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals
1. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on performing a routine assessment of a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Apply a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted.
- B. Monitor ventilator settings every 8 hours.
- C. Document tube placement in centimeters at the angle of the jaw.
- D. Assess breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing breath sounds every 1 to 2 hours is crucial in monitoring the client's respiratory status and identifying any potential complications promptly. Monitoring ventilator settings every 8 hours is important for overall ventilation management. Documenting the endotracheal tube placement accurately is essential to ensure proper positioning. Using a vest restraint if self-extubation is attempted is not a recommended intervention as it can lead to complications and should be avoided.
2. What is the abbreviation for micro drop?
- A. µgtt
- B. gtt
- C. mdr
- D. mgts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct abbreviation for micro drop is 'µgtt,' where the symbol 'µ' represents micro and 'gtt' stands for drop. Choice B, 'gtt,' is the abbreviation for drop, not specifically for micro drop. Choice C, 'mdr,' and Choice D, 'mgts,' are not standard abbreviations for micro drop and are incorrect.
3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?
- A. Client who has dysphagia
- B. Client who has AIDS
- C. Client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago
- D. Client who has a closed head injury and is receiving ventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.
4. When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?
- A. Fowler’s position
- B. Side-lying
- C. Supine
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler’s position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.
5. Which of the following interventions promotes patient safety?
- A. Assess the patient’s ability to ambulate and transfer from a bed to a chair
- B. Demonstrate the signal system to the patient
- C. Check to see that the patient is wearing their identification band
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All the listed interventions are essential for promoting patient safety. Assessing the patient’s ability to ambulate and transfer helps prevent falls, demonstrating the signal system ensures effective communication in emergencies, and checking the patient's identification band aids in accurate identification and treatment. By combining these interventions, healthcare providers can enhance patient safety and quality of care.
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