ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the transparent membrane that focuses the light entering the eyes onto the retina?
- A. Lens
- B. Sclera
- C. Cornea
- D. Pupils
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the lens. The lens is a transparent structure in the eye that helps to focus light onto the retina, which is essential for clear vision. The cornea and sclera are also important parts of the eye, but the lens specifically plays a crucial role in focusing light onto the retina. The sclera is the white outer layer of the eye that helps maintain the shape of the eye, while the cornea is the clear outer covering of the eye that helps to refract light into the eye.
2. When is sterile technique used?
- A. During strict isolation procedures
- B. After terminal disinfection is performed
- C. For invasive procedures
- D. When protective isolation is necessary
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sterile technique is utilized during invasive procedures to prevent the introduction of pathogens, minimizing the risk of infections. This strict approach ensures that the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, reducing the chances of contamination and subsequent complications.
3. A healthcare professional in an emergency department is assessing a newly admitted client who is experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Obtain a baseline ECG.
- B. Obtain a blood specimen for ABG analysis.
- C. Insert an 18-gauge IV catheter.
- D. Administer 100% humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing drooling and hoarseness following a burn injury, airway compromise is a critical concern. Administering 100% humidified oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation. This intervention takes precedence over obtaining baseline ECG, obtaining blood specimens, or inserting an IV catheter, as airway management and oxygenation are fundamental in the initial assessment and management of a client with potential airway compromise.
4. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
5. Which pulse's absence may not be a significant finding when a patient is admitted to the hospital?
- A. Apical
- B. Radial
- C. Pedal
- D. Femoral
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The absence of the pedal pulse may not be significant if the patient has poor peripheral circulation or if the healthcare provider is focused on other pulse points. The pedal pulse is often weaker and may not always be palpable due to various factors, making its absence less concerning in certain situations. However, the absence of other pulses like radial or femoral pulses may indicate more critical conditions and require immediate attention.
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