a charge nurse is assisting with an emergency response following a disaster which client should be recommended for early discharge
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking regularly is beneficial for clients with osteoporosis as it helps maintain bone density and prevent fractures. Choice A is not the most appropriate because clients with osteoporosis often require more than just calcium supplements. Choice C is incorrect as weight-bearing exercises actually help strengthen bones. Choice D is important, but walking regularly has a more direct impact on bone health in clients with osteoporosis.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

4. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

5. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.

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