a charge nurse is assisting with an emergency response following a disaster which client should be recommended for early discharge
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.

2. What is the most appropriate action when a patient experiences a fall in the hospital?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient for injuries. When a patient experiences a fall in the hospital, the immediate concern is to check for any injuries that may require urgent care. Calling for help can be done after assessing the patient to ensure appropriate assistance is provided. Documenting the fall is important for the patient's medical record, but it is not the most immediate action needed. Notifying the healthcare provider can come after the initial assessment to update them on the situation.

3. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should eat crackers before getting out of bed.' Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help reduce nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This recommendation helps in stabilizing blood sugar levels before fully waking up. Choice B is incorrect because ginger ale may exacerbate nausea due to its carbonation. Choice C is incorrect as lying down after eating can worsen symptoms of nausea. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding eating between meals can lead to low blood sugar levels, worsening nausea and vomiting.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of early decelerations noted during labor with electronic fetal monitoring, the nurse should expect head compression. Early decelerations are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions and are not indicative of fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect as early decelerations are not associated with fetal oxygen deprivation. Choices C and D, placenta previa and umbilical cord prolapse, are unrelated to the scenario described and do not cause early decelerations.

5. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

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