ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote airway clearance?
- A. Perform chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.
- B. Suction the client every 2 hours.
- C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increased fluid intake helps thin secretions, making it easier for the client to clear their airways. Chest physiotherapy (Choice A) is more focused on mobilizing secretions and may not be suitable for all clients with pneumonia. Suctioning (Choice B) is indicated for clients who have excessive secretions that they cannot manage effectively themselves. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) is important for clients with pneumonia to maintain adequate oxygenation, but it does not directly promote airway clearance.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 80 mL/hr
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
- D. Heart rate of 72/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.
4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Change the TPN tubing every 48 hours.
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- D. Monitor the client's weight every 72 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This action helps reduce the risk of infection because the high glucose content of TPN promotes bacterial growth. Choice A is incorrect as changing the tubing every 48 hours would not provide adequate infection prevention. Option C, monitoring urine output, is important for assessing renal function but is not directly related to preventing TPN-related infections. Option D, monitoring weight, is essential for assessing nutritional status but does not directly address infection prevention in TPN administration.
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