ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A 60-year-old male client with a long history of back pain has had little success with a variety of analgesic regimens that his family physician has prescribed. He has recently been diagnosed with a chronic pain disorder. Which teaching points about chronic pain would his physician most likely emphasize to the client?
- A. Chronic pain is often difficult to treat and requires a multimodal approach.
- B. Chronic pain indicates that an underlying injury has not healed properly.
- C. Chronic pain can be managed with a single long-term medication.
- D. Chronic pain is typically less severe than acute pain but lasts longer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic pain is often complex and challenging to treat, necessitating a multimodal approach that may include medication, physical therapy, and behavioral therapy. Choice B is incorrect because chronic pain does not always indicate that an underlying injury has not healed properly; it can persist even after the initial injury has healed. Choice C is incorrect as chronic pain management usually involves a combination of treatments rather than relying solely on a single long-term medication. Choice D is incorrect because chronic pain is not necessarily less severe than acute pain; it can vary in intensity and duration depending on the individual and underlying condition.
2. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of peptic ulcer disease
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates combined with sildenafil can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of peptic ulcer disease, use of antihypertensive medications, or a history of hypertension are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use.
3. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?
- A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
- B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
- C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
- D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.
4. A woman is complaining that she feels like the room is spinning even though she is not moving. Which of the following is characteristic of benign positional vertigo?
- A. It usually occurs with a headache.
- B. Pupillary changes are common.
- C. It is usually triggered when the patient bends forward.
- D. Nystagmus continues even when eyes fixate on an object.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Benign positional vertigo is typically triggered by changes in head position, such as bending forward or turning over in bed. This change in position leads to brief episodes of vertigo, often associated with nystagmus, which is rapid, involuntary eye movements. Pupillary changes and headaches are not typical features of benign positional vertigo, making choices B and A incorrect. Nystagmus in benign positional vertigo usually stops when the eyes fixate on an object, so choice D is also incorrect.
5. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
- A. Decreased insulin production
- B. Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production
- C. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- D. Increased production of insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of ADH, which leads to water retention and dilution of blood sodium levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because SIADH is not associated with decreased insulin production, decreased ADH production, or increased production of insulin.
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