ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. What is a common cause of a pulmonary embolism?
- A. An autoimmune disorder
- B. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity
- C. An increase in intracranial pressure
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A pulmonary embolism is commonly caused by a blood clot that originates in the venous system of the lower extremity and travels to the lungs, blocking blood flow. This clot is known as a venous thromboembolism. An autoimmune disorder (Choice A) is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. Intracranial pressure (Choice C) refers to pressure inside the skull and is unrelated to pulmonary embolism. Hypotension (Choice D) is low blood pressure and is not a common cause of pulmonary embolism.
2. Why does multiple sclerosis manifest as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body?
- A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
- B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
- C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
- D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system mistakenly attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This results in the formation of lesions that can occur in different parts of the central nervous system, leading to varied symptoms depending on the location of the damage. Choice A is the correct answer because it accurately describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe mechanisms or locations that are not associated with the pathogenesis of multiple sclerosis.
3. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important contraindication should the nurse emphasize during patient education?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. History of hypertension
- C. History of peptic ulcer disease
- D. Use of antihypertensive medications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use. While a history of hypertension or peptic ulcer disease may require caution, they are not absolute contraindications like the concomitant use of nitrates.
4. The nurse is closely following a patient who began treatment with testosterone several months earlier. When assessing the patient for potential adverse effects of treatment, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
- A. Skin inspection for developing lesions
- B. Lung function testing
- C. Assessment of serum calcium levels
- D. Assessment of arterial blood gases
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In patients receiving testosterone therapy, the nurse should prioritize assessing serum calcium levels. Testosterone therapy can lead to hypercalcemia, making the evaluation of serum calcium levels crucial. Skin inspection for developing lesions, lung function testing, and arterial blood gas assessment are not the priority assessments for potential adverse effects of testosterone therapy. Skin inspection may be relevant for dermatological side effects, lung function testing and arterial blood gas assessment are not directly related to the common side effects of testosterone therapy.
5. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
- A. B cell deficiency
- B. T cell deficiency
- C. Combined immunodeficiency
- D. Complement deficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
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