ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. In a 70-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) reporting increasing shortness of breath, wheezing, and cough, which finding would indicate a potential exacerbation of his COPD?
- A. Increased wheezing
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Improved exercise tolerance
- D. Decreased sputum production
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased wheezing. In COPD exacerbations, there is a worsening of symptoms such as increased wheezing due to airway inflammation and narrowing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased respiratory rate would not be expected in COPD exacerbation as it is usually a compensatory mechanism to maintain oxygenation. Improved exercise tolerance is not a typical finding in exacerbations but rather a sign of improvement. Decreased sputum production is also not indicative of exacerbation, as exacerbations are often associated with increased sputum production.
2. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?
- A. Infective endocarditis
- B. Coronary artery disease
- C. Mitral valve stenosis
- D. Aortic regurgitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.
3. A patient is receiving chloroquine (Aralen) for extraintestinal amebiasis. Which of the following medications should be administered with chloroquine?
- A. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin)
- B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- C. Metyrosine (Demser)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metronidazole (Flagyl). When treating extraintestinal amebiasis, chloroquine is often used in combination with metronidazole to ensure the eradication of the parasite. Metronidazole helps to target the infection more effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin) is another antiprotozoal agent but is not typically used in combination with chloroquine for amebiasis. Metyrosine (Demser) is used in the management of pheochromocytoma, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is an anticonvulsant and mood-stabilizing drug, neither of which are indicated for extraintestinal amebiasis.
4. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
- A. Hypotonia
- B. Hyperreflexia
- C. Muscle atrophy
- D. Fasciculations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.
5. A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this treatment?
- A. Liver dysfunction
- B. Kidney dysfunction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for during androgen therapy for hypogonadism is liver dysfunction. Androgen therapy can lead to hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver function tests is crucial during treatment. Kidney dysfunction (Choice B), heart failure (Choice C), and pulmonary embolism (Choice D) are not commonly associated with androgen therapy and are less likely adverse effects compared to liver dysfunction.
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