ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
- A. Alkalosis and hyperventilation
- B. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia
- C. Alkalosis and high potassium
- D. Elevated sodium and acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, hypoxemia (low blood oxygen) and hypercapnia (high blood carbon dioxide) are commonly observed. Choice A is incorrect because alkalosis (high pH) and hyperventilation are not typically seen in acute respiratory failure. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions alkalosis and high potassium, which are not characteristic of acute respiratory failure. Choice D is also incorrect because elevated sodium and acidosis are not typically associated with acute respiratory failure.
2. The parents of a 4-year-old girl have sought care because their daughter has admitted to chewing and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been determined to be made of lead. Which of the following blood tests should the care team prioritize?
- A. White blood cell levels with differential
- B. Red blood cell levels and morphology
- C. Urea and creatinine levels
- D. Liver function panel
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red blood cell levels and morphology. Lead poisoning primarily affects red blood cells, causing anemia. Therefore, the priority test would be to assess red blood cell levels and morphology. Choice A (White blood cell levels with differential) is incorrect as lead poisoning does not primarily affect white blood cells. Choice C (Urea and creatinine levels) is unrelated to lead poisoning and not a priority in this scenario. Choice D (Liver function panel) is also not the priority as lead poisoning's primary impact is on the red blood cells, not the liver.
3. What tool is used to determine a client’s level of consciousness?
- A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
- C. Central perfusion pressure (CPP)
- D. Intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a client's level of consciousness by evaluating verbal, motor, and eye-opening responses. Choice A, Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), is a diagnostic imaging tool that provides detailed images of the body's organs and tissues but is not used to assess consciousness levels. Choice C, Central Perfusion Pressure (CPP), and Choice D, Intracranial Pressure (ICP) monitoring, are related to hemodynamic monitoring and intracranial pressure management, not direct assessment of consciousness.
4. An adult patient has begun treatment with fluconazole. The nurse should recognize the need to likely discontinue the drug if the patient develops which of the following signs or symptoms?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Weight gain
- C. Iron deficiency anemia
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Fluconazole, an antifungal medication, can rarely cause hepatotoxicity, which may manifest as jaundice. Monitoring for signs of liver dysfunction, such as jaundice, is crucial during fluconazole therapy. Weight gain, iron deficiency anemia, and hematuria are not commonly associated with fluconazole use and are not indications for discontinuing the drug.
5. What are the characteristics of the inflammatory process?
- A. Loss of function, coolness
- B. Pain, redness
- C. Heat, pallor
- D. Swelling, pallor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain, redness. Inflammation is characterized by pain and redness as part of the body's response to tissue injury. Choice A, loss of function and coolness, are not primary characteristics of inflammation. Choice C, heat and pallor, may be present in some cases but are not as consistently associated with inflammation as pain and redness. Choice D, swelling and pallor, includes swelling which is common in inflammation but pallor is not a typical characteristic.
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