Nursing Elites

1. A 54-year-old man presents with a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), a racing heart, fatigue, and an upset stomach after spending an afternoon building a deck on a very hot, humid day. The physician assessing the man is performing a differential diagnosis as part of her assessment. Which finding would suggest fever rather than hyperthermia as a cause of the elevation in the man's temperature?

• A. Absence of sweating
• B. Shivering
• C. Lack of thirst
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shivering is a physiological response to fever, as the body attempts to generate heat to increase the internal temperature. Hyperthermia, on the other hand, does not involve shivering. Absence of sweating (choice A) is more indicative of hyperthermia, as the body struggles to cool down without sweating. Lack of thirst (choice C) can be seen in both fever and hyperthermia. Increased heart rate (choice D) can occur in both fever and hyperthermia due to the body's attempt to regulate temperature.

2. A 30-year-old male is being treated with testosterone enanthate for delayed puberty. What side effect should the nurse inform the patient about?

• A. Increased libido
• B. Decreased muscle mass
• C. Breast tenderness
• D. Increased aggression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should inform the patient about when receiving testosterone enanthate therapy for delayed puberty is increased aggression. Testosterone therapy can lead to mood changes, including increased aggression in some individuals. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients about this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because testosterone therapy is more likely to increase libido, promote muscle mass growth, and may cause breast tenderness due to hormonal imbalances.

3. A 30-year-old has poorly controlled asthma and is taking prednisone 10 mg by mouth once a day. He has been on this regimen for 6 weeks. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of this medication can cause:

• A. adrenal crisis
• B. hypercortisolism
• C. ACTH stimulation
• D. thyroid crisis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to adrenal crisis. This occurs due to the suppression of the adrenal glands' natural cortisol production caused by prolonged exogenous steroid administration. Adrenal crisis presents with symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, abdominal pain, and hypotension. Hypercortisolism (Cushing syndrome) results from chronic excessive exposure to cortisol, not abrupt withdrawal. ACTH stimulation would be expected in response to low cortisol levels, not as a direct consequence of prednisone withdrawal. Thyroid crisis (thyroid storm) is associated with severe hyperthyroidism and is not directly related to corticosteroid withdrawal.

4. If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the nurse will observe which response during neuro testing, where the nurse asks the client to close his eyes and then proceeds to touch corresponding parts of the body on each side simultaneously with two sharp points?

• A. The client will not be able to distinguish between the two points.
• B. The client will feel only one point of contact.
• C. The client will accurately identify both points.
• D. The client will report no sensation in the touched areas.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client's dorsal columns are not functioning, the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced points is impaired. This results in the client not being able to differentiate between the two points when touched simultaneously. Choice B is incorrect because the client feeling only one point suggests an intact dorsal column function. Choice C is incorrect as accurately identifying both points indicates normal discrimination ability. Choice D is incorrect as reporting no sensation does not correspond to the specific impairment related to dorsal column dysfunction.

5. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?

• A. A patient who has experienced a spinal cord injury and reports severe, burning pain in his legs.
• B. A patient who reports severe pain in her hand following a surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome.
• C. A patient who develops pain in his foot following a fracture and immobilization with a cast.
• D. A patient who experiences chronic pain and swelling in his arm following a brachial plexus injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.

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