ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A 54-year-old man presents with a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), a racing heart, fatigue, and an upset stomach after spending an afternoon building a deck on a very hot, humid day. The physician assessing the man is performing a differential diagnosis as part of her assessment. Which finding would suggest fever rather than hyperthermia as a cause of the elevation in the man's temperature?
- A. Absence of sweating
- B. Shivering
- C. Lack of thirst
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shivering is a physiological response to fever, as the body attempts to generate heat to increase the internal temperature. Hyperthermia, on the other hand, does not involve shivering. Absence of sweating (choice A) is more indicative of hyperthermia, as the body struggles to cool down without sweating. Lack of thirst (choice C) can be seen in both fever and hyperthermia. Increased heart rate (choice D) can occur in both fever and hyperthermia due to the body's attempt to regulate temperature.
2. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?
- A. Autoimmune
- B. Anaphylaxis
- C. Alloimmune
- D. Allergic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, an alloimmune reaction occurs. In this situation, the mother's immune system recognizes the fetus as foreign due to differences in antigens, leading to an immune response against the fetus. Choice A, 'Autoimmune,' is incorrect because it refers to the immune system mistakenly attacking the body's own cells and tissues. Choice B, 'Anaphylaxis,' is not the correct answer as it is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. Choice D, 'Allergic,' is also incorrect as it refers to an immune response triggered by allergens, not antigens expressed by the fetus.
3. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
- A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
- B. A 65-year-old man who worked as a taxi driver most of his life
- C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
- D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that can lead to COPD at a young age, even in light smokers. Choice B is less likely as the patient's occupation does not directly correlate with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice C, a 70-year-old woman with a long smoking history, is more likely to have COPD due to smoking rather than alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice D, exposure to secondhand smoke, is not a common cause of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency-related COPD.
4. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?
- A. It is metabolized in the liver.
- B. It binds to acetylcholine.
- C. It inhibits synthesis of RNA.
- D. It causes phagocytosis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.
5. A public health nurse is responsible for the administration of numerous immunizations. Which of the following guidelines regarding anaphylaxis should the nurse adhere to?
- A. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 1 minute after administration.
- B. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 5 minutes after administration.
- C. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.
- D. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 90 minutes after administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.' This is because anaphylaxis can occur within minutes of administration of an immunization. By observing the patient for 30 minutes, the nurse can promptly identify and manage any signs of anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they suggest shorter or longer observation periods, which may not be sufficient to detect and respond to anaphylaxis in a timely manner.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access