ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A 54-year-old man presents with a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), a racing heart, fatigue, and an upset stomach after spending an afternoon building a deck on a very hot, humid day. The physician assessing the man is performing a differential diagnosis as part of her assessment. Which finding would suggest fever rather than hyperthermia as a cause of the elevation in the man's temperature?
- A. Absence of sweating
- B. Shivering
- C. Lack of thirst
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shivering is a physiological response to fever, as the body attempts to generate heat to increase the internal temperature. Hyperthermia, on the other hand, does not involve shivering. Absence of sweating (choice A) is more indicative of hyperthermia, as the body struggles to cool down without sweating. Lack of thirst (choice C) can be seen in both fever and hyperthermia. Increased heart rate (choice D) can occur in both fever and hyperthermia due to the body's attempt to regulate temperature.
2. How will taking an oral contraceptive affect the physiologically of an insulin-dependent diabetic patient?
- A. Increase risk of hypoglycemia
- B. Increase heart rate
- C. Increase blood glucose
- D. Increase risk of metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Taking an oral contraceptive can lead to an increase in blood glucose levels in insulin-dependent diabetic patients. This occurs due to the hormonal changes induced by the contraceptive, which can impact insulin sensitivity. Therefore, diabetic patients need to closely monitor their blood glucose levels when starting an oral contraceptive to prevent complications. The other choices are incorrect as oral contraceptives do not typically lead to an increase in heart rate, risk of hypoglycemia, or risk of metabolic alkalosis in this context.
3. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Decreased prostate size
- C. Increased prostate size
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased prostate size. Finasteride is a medication used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. By decreasing the size of the prostate, symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency are improved. Choice A is incorrect as the medication aims to decrease, not increase, urinary symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because the goal of finasteride is to reduce, not increase, the prostate size. Choice D is also incorrect as finasteride is not indicated for lowering blood pressure.
4. In emphysema, what features result in impaired oxygenation?
- A. The bronchioles are inflamed and filled with mucus
- B. The alveoli have lost surfactant and collapse
- C. Enlarged, permanently inflated alveoli
- D. The accumulation of purulent fluid in the bronchioles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In emphysema, impaired oxygenation results from enlarged and permanently inflated alveoli, leading to reduced surface area for gas exchange. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In emphysema, bronchioles are not typically filled with mucus, alveoli losing surfactant and collapsing is more characteristic of conditions like atelectasis, and purulent fluid accumulation in the bronchioles is commonly seen in conditions like pneumonia, not emphysema.
5. An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated?
- A. Lymphokine-producing cells
- B. Cytotoxic T cells
- C. Helper T cells
- D. Macrophages
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells are the key players in cell-mediated immunity as they directly attack cells displaying specific antigens. Lymphokine-producing cells (Choice A) are involved in cytokine production, while Helper T cells (Choice C) assist in activating other immune cells. Macrophages (Choice D) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, but they are not the primary cells responsible for directly attacking cells with specific antigens in cell-mediated immunity.
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