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MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. The early stages of atheroma development are characterized by:
- A. macrophages full of oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL; i.e., foam cells) in the intima
- B. accumulation of lipids in the intima (i.e., fatty streak)
- C. accumulation of proteins such as collagen and elastin (i.e., fibrous cap)
- D. development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the early stages of atheroma development, macrophages accumulate oxidized low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and transform into foam cells, leading to the formation of fatty streaks in the intima of blood vessels. This process is a hallmark of the initial stages of atherosclerosis. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the accumulation of lipids in the intima, which is a later event following foam cell formation. Choice C is also incorrect as it refers to the accumulation of proteins forming the fibrous cap, which occurs at a later stage to stabilize the atheroma. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the development of calcium and a necrotic lipid core, typically seen in advanced atherosclerosis rather than the early stages.
2. Which disorder is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus organism producing a toxin leading to exfoliation and large blister formation?
- A. Herpes simplex I virus
- B. Bullous impetigo
- C. Necrotizing fasciitis
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bullous impetigo is the correct answer because it is caused by a Staphylococcus aureus toxin that leads to exfoliation and the formation of large blisters. Herpes simplex I virus (Choice A) causes cold sores and is not associated with exfoliation and blister formation. Necrotizing fasciitis (Choice C) is a severe skin infection involving the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, typically caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus or Clostridium species, not Staphylococcus aureus. Cellulitis (Choice D) is a common bacterial skin infection, but it does not involve exfoliation and blister formation as seen in bullous impetigo.
3. A 56-year-old woman has been experiencing memory loss and confusion for the past year. The client is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. Which finding is most characteristic of this disease?
- A. Neurofibrillary tangles in the brain
- B. Demyelination of neurons in the brain
- C. Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques
- D. Formation of Lewy bodies
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques. Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques in the brain. These plaques are formed from the buildup of beta-amyloid protein fragments between nerve cells. Choice A, neurofibrillary tangles, are a hallmark of another neurodegenerative disease called Alzheimer's disease. Choice B, demyelination of neurons, is more characteristic of diseases like multiple sclerosis. Choice D, formation of Lewy bodies, is associated with Lewy body dementia, not Alzheimer's disease.
4. A client with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
- B. Initiate airway clearance techniques.
- C. Encourage the client to maintain an active lifestyle.
- D. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a pulmonary exacerbation in cystic fibrosis, the priority intervention is to initiate airway clearance techniques. These techniques help clear mucus from the airways, improving ventilation and reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Administering a high-calorie, high-protein diet is beneficial for overall nutrition but is not the priority during an exacerbation. Encouraging an active lifestyle is important for long-term health but does not address the immediate need for managing exacerbations. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is important, but initiating airway clearance techniques takes precedence in the management of pulmonary exacerbations in cystic fibrosis.
5. On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?
- A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
- B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
- C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
- D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.
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