Nursing Elites

1. A 51-year-old woman has the following clinical findings: thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema. These findings are consistent with:

• A. Subacute thyroiditis.
• B. Autoimmune thyroiditis.
• C. Graves disease.
• D. Hashimoto’s disease.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The clinical findings of thin hair, exophthalmos, hyperreflexia, and pretibial edema are classic features of Graves disease, an autoimmune disorder that results in hyperthyroidism. Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and pretibial edema (swelling in the lower legs) are particularly associated with Graves disease due to the autoimmune stimulation of the thyroid gland, leading to increased thyroid hormone production. Subacute thyroiditis (Choice A) typically presents with neck pain and tenderness, while autoimmune thyroiditis (Choice B) is commonly known as Hashimoto's thyroiditis, which presents with hypothyroidism symptoms. Hashimoto's disease (Choice D) is characterized by goiter and hypothyroidism, which contrasts with the hyperthyroidism seen in this patient.

2. A school nurse is meeting with a high school student who mentions that she is frustrated with her repeated outbreaks of cold sores. The student states that she tried an over-the-counter topical cream but that it failed to produce an appreciable improvement. The nurse should recognize that this student used what medication?

• A. Ganciclovir
• B. Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
• C. Famciclovir (Famvir)
• D. Docosanol (Abreva)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Docosanol (Abreva). Docosanol is an over-the-counter topical cream commonly used to treat cold sores caused by the herpes simplex virus. It works by inhibiting viral fusion to host cell membranes, reducing the spread of the virus. Ganciclovir (Choice A) is an antiviral medication used for the treatment of cytomegalovirus infections. Valacyclovir (Choice B) and Famciclovir (Choice C) are prescription antiviral medications used to treat herpes simplex virus infections but are not typically available over-the-counter like Docosanol.

3. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Right lower quadrant cramping
• B. Severe bloody diarrhea
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Mostly affects the rectum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.

4. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?

• A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
• B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
• C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
• D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.

5. After a generalized seizure, a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. The postictal period is the phase following a seizure, characterized by symptoms like fatigue, confusion, and sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure process and does not necessarily indicate a serious underlying issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is expected and not an ominous sign. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided to suggest an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the presence of focal neurologic deficits would indeed be concerning, but the postictal state itself is a common and expected occurrence post-seizure.

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