a 50 year old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis ms after several years of being symptom free which of the following factors is most li
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ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology

1. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.

2. A hemoglobin electrophoresis is done to evaluate for sickle cell disease. The report reveals the person has HbAS, which means the person:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: HbAS indicates sickle cell trait, not full-blown sickle cell anemia. Choice A is incorrect because HbAS indicates the presence of the sickle cell trait. Choice C is incorrect as sickle cell anemia is characterized by HbSS, not HbAS. Choice D is incorrect as thalassemia is a different type of hemoglobin disorder not indicated by HbAS.

3. A patient is prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary mechanism of action for this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Raloxifene decreases bone resorption, which helps to maintain or increase bone density, making it effective in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.

4. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.

5. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.

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