Nursing Elites

1. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?

• A. Emotional stress
• B. Dietary indiscretion
• C. Physical overexertion
• D. Adequate rest and relaxation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.

2. Anemia of chronic inflammation is generally classified as:

• A. hypochromic and microcytic.
• B. hypochromic and macrocytic.
• C. normochromic and microcytic.
• D. normochromic and normocytic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anemia of chronic inflammation is characterized by normochromic and normocytic red blood cells. In chronic inflammation, the body typically produces enough red blood cells, but they are often smaller and paler than normal (normocytic and normochromic). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hypochromic and microcytic, hypochromic and macrocytic, and normochromic and microcytic anemias are not typically associated with chronic inflammation.

3. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

• A. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time
• B. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes
• C. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity
• D. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.

4. A child with a serious fungal infection is receiving amphotericin B parenterally. Which of the following minerals will the patient most likely be required to receive?

• A. Chloride
• B. Magnesium
• C. Glucose
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is receiving amphotericin B, which is known to cause renal toxicity, they are most likely to require magnesium supplementation. Amphotericin B can lead to renal loss of magnesium, potassium, and calcium. Magnesium is an essential mineral that plays a vital role in various physiological functions, and its levels need to be monitored and supplemented when necessary. Chloride, glucose, and sodium are not typically supplemented in the context of amphotericin B therapy for a serious fungal infection.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance does the nurse suspect in a patient with hyperaldosteronism?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would suspect hyperkalemia. Hyperaldosteronism leads to increased potassium excretion, resulting in low potassium levels in the blood. Therefore, choices A (Hyponatremia), B (Hypernatremia), and D (Hypercalcemia) are incorrect. Hyponatremia refers to low sodium levels, Hypernatremia refers to high sodium levels, and Hypercalcemia refers to high calcium levels, none of which are typically associated with hyperaldosteronism.

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