ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology
1. A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?
- A. Emotional stress
- B. Dietary indiscretion
- C. Physical overexertion
- D. Adequate rest and relaxation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Physical overexertion. In individuals with multiple sclerosis (MS), physical overexertion can exacerbate symptoms and contribute to a relapse. It is important for individuals with MS to balance physical activity to avoid triggering symptom reoccurrence. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the relapse. Emotional stress and dietary indiscretion may play a role in exacerbating symptoms in some individuals, but physical overexertion is more commonly associated with MS relapses. Adequate rest and relaxation are important for overall well-being but are not typically linked to MS relapses.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS?
- A. HIV only infects B cells
- B. HIV is a retrovirus
- C. Infection does not require a host cell receptor
- D. After infection, cell death is immediate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIV is a retrovirus that infects T cells and leads to the gradual destruction of the immune system. Choice A is incorrect because HIV infects T cells primarily, not just B cells. Choice C is incorrect because HIV infection requires host cell receptors for entry. Choice D is incorrect because cell death after HIV infection is not immediate; instead, the virus gradually weakens the immune system over time.
3. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:
- A. Leukemia
- B. Sideroblastic anemia
- C. Hemosiderosis
- D. Polycythemia vera
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a newly inserted pacemaker. What is the most important nursing action post-procedure?
- A. Monitor the insertion site for signs of infection.
- B. Educate the client about activity restrictions.
- C. Monitor the client's heart rate and rhythm.
- D. Assess the client's lung sounds for signs of fluid overload.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Post-procedure, monitoring the insertion site for signs of infection is crucial because it helps in early detection of any potential complications such as infection. While educating the client about activity restrictions, monitoring the client's heart rate and rhythm, and assessing lung sounds for signs of fluid overload are important aspects of care, the immediate priority post-procedure is to prevent infection at the insertion site, which could lead to serious complications.
5. Women who have breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation are usually:
- A. positive for human epidermal growth factor receptor 1 and 2.
- B. negative for estrogen receptor.
- C. positive for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
- D. negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Women with breast cancer due to a BRCA1 gene mutation commonly have a triple-negative breast cancer subtype, which means they are negative for estrogen receptor, progesterone receptor, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). This subtype tends to be more aggressive and harder to treat. Choice A is incorrect as they are typically negative for HER2. Choice B is incorrect because they are usually negative for estrogen receptor. Choice C is incorrect as they are usually negative for progesterone receptor and HER2.
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