ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?
- A. Avanafil (Stendra)
- B. Tadalafil (Cialis)
- C. Vardenafil (Levitra)
- D. Alprostadil (Caverject)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.
2. Stress-induced cortisol hormone secretion is associated with:
- A. Increased growth hormone level
- B. Regulation of the stress response
- C. Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone
- D. Depressed adrenal gland function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regulation of the stress response. Cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating the body's response to stress by modulating various physiological processes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stress-induced cortisol hormone secretion is not directly associated with increased growth hormone levels, increased thyroid-stimulating hormone, or depressed adrenal gland function.
3. What is the process of moving air into the lungs with subsequent distribution to the alveoli called?
- A. Ventilation
- B. Aeration
- C. Enclosure vapor
- D. Residual volume
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ventilation. Ventilation is the process of moving air into the lungs and distributing it to the alveoli for gas exchange. Choice B, Aeration, is not the correct term for this specific process. Choice C, Enclosure vapor, is not related to the movement of air into the lungs. Choice D, Residual volume, refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration and is not the process of moving air into the lungs.
4. A 60-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. Which of the following should be the next step in the evaluation?
- A. Urinalysis
- B. Renal ultrasound
- C. Cystoscopy
- D. Intravenous pyelogram
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a 60-year-old man presenting with painless hematuria, the next step in the evaluation should be cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is recommended to assess the cause of hematuria, particularly to rule out bladder cancer, which is more common in older individuals. Urinalysis (Choice A) can provide initial information but may not definitively diagnose the underlying cause. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and intravenous pyelogram (Choice D) are imaging studies that may be considered later in the evaluation process but are not the initial step for painless hematuria.
5. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?
- A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
- B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
- C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with antibiotics.
- D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the contraceptive's efficacy, potentially leading to decreased effectiveness. Therefore, patients should be advised to use additional contraception methods if they are also taking antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is incorrect since taking oral contraceptives with food does not necessarily impact their effectiveness.
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