thrombocytopenia is which disorder below
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. Thrombocytopenia is which disorder below?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a disorder characterized by a decreased platelet count or decreased platelet production, which affects blood clotting. Choice A, 'Increased blood coagulation,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is associated with decreased platelets, leading to impaired clotting. Choice B, 'Increased platelet production,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decrease in platelet production. Choice C, 'Increased number of infections,' is unrelated to thrombocytopenia, which primarily involves low platelet levels.

2. A patient is starting on alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime can increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect as taking alendronate with milk can reduce its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance its effectiveness.

3. Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains. These three types of birthmarks are known to fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and disappear over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis, commonly known as Mongolian spots, usually fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also called salmon patches, tend to lighten and fade as a child grows. The other choices are incorrect because they do not typically fade or regress with age.

4. A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.

5. A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.

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