Nursing Elites

1. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

• A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
• B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
• C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
• D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.

2. After ingestion of cysts, how long does it take for the symptoms of giardiasis to develop?

• A. 12 to 24 hours
• B. 3 to 5 days
• C. 1 to 2 weeks
• D. 2 to 3 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Giardiasis symptoms typically develop 3 to 5 days after ingestion of the cysts. This timeframe aligns with the incubation period of the Giardia parasite. Choice A (12 to 24 hours) is too short for giardiasis to manifest. Choice C (1 to 2 weeks) and choice D (2 to 3 months) represent durations that are not consistent with the usual onset of symptoms in giardiasis.

3. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

• A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
• B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
• C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
• D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.

4. The signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease include:

• A. constipation with gastric distension.
• B. bradycardia and bradypnea.
• C. hyperthermia and tachycardia.
• D. constipation and lethargy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thyroid crisis in Graves' disease typically presents with hyperthermia (high body temperature) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate). These symptoms are a result of excessive thyroid hormone production and can lead to life-threatening complications if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation with gastric distension, bradycardia and bradypnea, and constipation and lethargy are not typical signs of a thyroid crisis in Graves' disease.

5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

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