Nursing Elites

1. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

• A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
• B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
• C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
• D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus has just undergone a right, below-the-knee amputation following gangrene infection. A few days after the amputation, the client confides in the nurse that he still feels his right foot. Knowing the pathophysiologic principles behind this, the nurse can:

• A. administer a psychotropic medication to help the client cope with the sensation of his amputated leg.
• B. explain that many amputees have this sensation and that one theory surmises the end of a regenerating nerve becomes trapped in the scar tissue of the amputation site.
• C. call the physician and request an order for a psychological consult.
• D. educate the client that this area has an unusually abnormal increase in sensitivity to sensation but that it will go away with time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The sensation of feeling the amputated limb is known as phantom limb pain, which is common after amputation. One theory suggests that it occurs because the end of a regenerating nerve becomes trapped in the scar tissue at the amputation site. Administering psychotropic medication (choice A) is not the first-line treatment for phantom limb pain. Requesting a psychological consult (choice C) is premature without first addressing the known pathophysiological basis of phantom limb pain. Educating the client that the sensitivity will go away with time (choice D) is not entirely accurate as phantom limb pain can persist long-term.

3. A patient with a history of cardiovascular disease is being prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse include in the patient education regarding the risks associated with HRT?

• A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• D. HRT may decrease the risk of breast cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of certain conditions like venous thromboembolism, as mentioned in choice C. Choice D is also incorrect as HRT has been associated with a slight increase in the risk of breast cancer.

4. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. BPH
• C. Chronic renal failure
• D. Type 2 diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.

5. Thrombocytopenia is which disorder below?

• A. Increased blood coagulation
• B. Increased platelet production
• C. Increased number of infections
• D. Decreased platelet production

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a disorder characterized by a decreased platelet count or decreased platelet production, which affects blood clotting. Choice A, 'Increased blood coagulation,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is associated with decreased platelets, leading to impaired clotting. Choice B, 'Increased platelet production,' is incorrect as thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decrease in platelet production. Choice C, 'Increased number of infections,' is unrelated to thrombocytopenia, which primarily involves low platelet levels.

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