a 74 year old woman states that many of her peers underwent hormone replacement therapy hrt in years past the woman asks the nurse why her primary car

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology

1. A 74-year-old woman states that many of her peers underwent hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in years past. The woman asks the nurse why her primary care provider has not yet proposed this treatment for her. What fact should underlie the nurse's response to the woman?

A. The risks of stroke and breast cancer are unacceptably high in women taking HRT.
B. HRT was found to cause mood disturbances in many women who used it long term.
C. HRT was found to be a significant risk factor for bone fractures and osteoporosis.
D. The risks of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease were found to be significantly higher in women using HRT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the main reason HRT is not recommended for all women is due to the increased risks of stroke and breast cancer associated with its use. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been linked to an elevated risk of stroke and breast cancer, which outweigh its potential benefits for many individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the primary concerns regarding HRT use. While HRT can indeed cause mood disturbances and may affect bone health, the significant risks of stroke and breast cancer are the primary reasons why healthcare providers may choose not to recommend HRT for some women.

2. Why does multiple sclerosis manifest as asymmetrical and in different parts of the body?

A. Autoreactive lymphocytes are causing diffuse patchy damage to the myelin sheath in the central nervous system.
B. Acetylcholine receptors are destroyed by immunoglobulin G.
C. Autoreactive T lymphocytes cause progressive loss of neurons in the substantia nigra.
D. Cortical motor cells degenerate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is characterized by the immune system mistakenly attacking the myelin sheath in the central nervous system. This results in the formation of lesions that can occur in different parts of the central nervous system, leading to varied symptoms depending on the location of the damage. Choice A is the correct answer because it accurately describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe mechanisms or locations that are not associated with the pathogenesis of multiple sclerosis.

3. What is a common cause of a pulmonary embolism?

A. An autoimmune disorder
B. A venous blood clot from the lower extremity
C. An increase in intracranial pressure
D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulmonary embolism is commonly caused by a blood clot that originates in the venous system of the lower extremity and travels to the lungs, blocking blood flow. This clot is known as a venous thromboembolism. An autoimmune disorder (Choice A) is not typically associated with pulmonary embolism. Intracranial pressure (Choice C) refers to pressure inside the skull and is unrelated to pulmonary embolism. Hypotension (Choice D) is low blood pressure and is not a common cause of pulmonary embolism.

4. A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?

A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation. Choice A is the correct answer because it aligns with the standard dosing regimen for clomiphene citrate. Choices B, C, and D provide incorrect information about the dosing schedule for clomiphene, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential side effects. Choice B suggests continuous daily intake, which is not the standard practice for clomiphene. Choice C and D mention different dosing frequencies and timings, which are not in line with the typical protocol for using clomiphene for infertility.

5. Which of the following steps occurs first during hemostasis?

A. Vascular spasm
B. Platelet plug
C. Coagulation
D. Dissolution of the clot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vascular spasm is the initial step in hemostasis, where blood vessels constrict to reduce blood flow to the injured area. This constriction helps limit blood loss until further steps like platelet plug formation and coagulation can take place. Platelet plug formation and coagulation occur after the vascular spasm, making them incorrect choices. Dissolution of the clot happens much later in the healing process, after the injury has sufficiently healed.