Nursing Elites

1. A 74-year-old woman states that many of her peers underwent hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in years past. The woman asks the nurse why her primary care provider has not yet proposed this treatment for her. What fact should underlie the nurse's response to the woman?

• A. The risks of stroke and breast cancer are unacceptably high in women taking HRT.
• B. HRT was found to cause mood disturbances in many women who used it long term.
• C. HRT was found to be a significant risk factor for bone fractures and osteoporosis.
• D. The risks of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease were found to be significantly higher in women using HRT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the main reason HRT is not recommended for all women is due to the increased risks of stroke and breast cancer associated with its use. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been linked to an elevated risk of stroke and breast cancer, which outweigh its potential benefits for many individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the primary concerns regarding HRT use. While HRT can indeed cause mood disturbances and may affect bone health, the significant risks of stroke and breast cancer are the primary reasons why healthcare providers may choose not to recommend HRT for some women.

2. A patient who is undergoing treatment for cytomegalovirus received his first dose of IV ganciclovir 3 days ago. When reviewing this patient's most recent blood work, what abnormality should the nurse most likely attribute to the use of this drug?

• A. Hemoglobin 17 g/dL (high normal)
• B. INR 3.8 (high)
• C. Platelet count 118,000/mm3 (low)
• D. Leukocytes 11,900/mm3 (high)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count 118,000/mm3 (low). Ganciclovir, used to treat cytomegalovirus, is known to cause bone marrow suppression, leading to decreased platelet count (thrombocytopenia). This condition can increase the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with ganciclovir therapy. High hemoglobin levels (choice A) are not commonly seen with ganciclovir treatment. INR elevation (choice B) is associated with coagulation abnormalities, which are not a typical side effect of ganciclovir. Elevated leukocyte count (choice D) is not a common consequence of ganciclovir use.

3. A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?

• A. Temporal arteritis
• B. Trigeminal neuralgia
• C. Migraine headache
• D. Cluster headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by severe, stabbing pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by light touch, chewing, or brushing teeth. In this case, the patient's symptoms of sharp, intermittent facial pain triggered by activities like chewing and touching her face are classic for trigeminal neuralgia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Temporal arteritis typically presents with unilateral headache, jaw claudication, and visual symptoms. Migraine headaches are usually throbbing in nature and often associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain around the eye with autonomic symptoms like lacrimation and nasal congestion.

4. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

• A. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids.
• B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins.
• C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment.
• D. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

5. When teaching a patient about the use of finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), what should the nurse emphasize about the expected outcomes of this therapy?

• A. Expect improvement in symptoms within a few days.
• B. Improvement in symptoms may take several weeks or months.
• C. Expect immediate improvement in urinary flow.
• D. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable as it works by shrinking the prostate gland over time. Therefore, patients should be informed that improvement in symptoms may not be immediate. Choice A is incorrect because improvement in symptoms is not expected within a few days. Choice C is incorrect as immediate improvement in urinary flow is not typical with finasteride. Choice D is incorrect because finasteride manages BPH symptoms but does not cure the condition.

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