Nursing Elites

1. A 74-year-old woman states that many of her peers underwent hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in years past. The woman asks the nurse why her primary care provider has not yet proposed this treatment for her. What fact should underlie the nurse's response to the woman?

• A. The risks of stroke and breast cancer are unacceptably high in women taking HRT.
• B. HRT was found to cause mood disturbances in many women who used it long term.
• C. HRT was found to be a significant risk factor for bone fractures and osteoporosis.
• D. The risks of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease were found to be significantly higher in women using HRT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the main reason HRT is not recommended for all women is due to the increased risks of stroke and breast cancer associated with its use. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been linked to an elevated risk of stroke and breast cancer, which outweigh its potential benefits for many individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the primary concerns regarding HRT use. While HRT can indeed cause mood disturbances and may affect bone health, the significant risks of stroke and breast cancer are the primary reasons why healthcare providers may choose not to recommend HRT for some women.

2. Which of the following is the most likely indication for the use of immunosuppressant agents?

• A. Intractable seizure disorders
• B. Increased intracranial pressure
• C. Organ transplantation
• D. HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Organ transplantation. Immunosuppressant agents are commonly used in organ transplant recipients to prevent organ rejection by suppressing the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Intractable seizure disorders are often managed with antiepileptic drugs, increased intracranial pressure is managed through various means like surgery and medications, and HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance is typically treated with antiretroviral therapy, not immunosuppressant agents.

3. A patient taking an oral contraceptive missed one pill. What should the nurse teach the patient to do?

• A. Take two pills as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• B. Take one pill as soon as you remember, then continue the regular schedule.
• C. Skip the missed pill and continue the regular schedule.
• D. Take two pills immediately, then continue the regular schedule.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking an oral contraceptive misses one pill, the correct action is to take two pills as soon as they remember and then continue the regular schedule. Option A is the correct answer because doubling up the dose helps maintain the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Option B is incorrect because taking only one pill after missing one may decrease contraceptive effectiveness. Option C is wrong as skipping the missed pill can also reduce effectiveness. Option D is inaccurate because taking two pills immediately is not necessary; the patient should take the missed pill as soon as remembered and then resume the regular dosing schedule.

4. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?

• A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
• B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
• C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
• D. Estradiol (Estrace)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.

5. When administering azoles in the home setting, the home health nurse should prioritize educational interventions that address what nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy
• B. Risk for acute confusion related to antifungal therapy
• C. Risk for infection related to antifungal therapy
• D. Risk for falls related to antifungal therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy. When administering azoles, the priority is to educate patients and caregivers about potential side effects that could lead to injury, such as hepatotoxicity or allergic reactions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because acute confusion, infection, and falls are not typically associated with azole therapy.

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