ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. A patient presents with a sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is significantly higher in the right arm than in the left arm. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
- A. Acute myocardial infarction
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Aortic dissection
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is characterized by sudden, severe chest pain that can radiate to the back. The discrepancy in blood pressure between the arms (higher in the right arm) is known as a 'pulse deficit' and is a classic finding in aortic dissection. This condition involves a tear in the inner layer of the aorta, leading to the abnormal flow of blood within the aortic wall. Acute myocardial infarction (choice A) presents with chest pain but typically does not cause discrepancies in blood pressure between arms. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) usually presents with chest pain and difficulty breathing but does not cause unequal blood pressures in the arms. Pericarditis (choice D) can cause chest pain exacerbated by breathing or lying down, but it does not typically lead to differences in blood pressure between arms.
2. The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?
- A. Raise the head of the bed so you are sitting straight up, bend your knees, and swing your legs to the side and then to the floor
- B. Rock your body from side to side, going further each time until you build up enough momentum to be lying on your right side, and then raise your trunk toward your toes
- C. Reach over to the left side rail with your right hand, pull your body onto its side, bend your upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and push down to elevate your trunk
- D. Focus on using your arms, the left elbow as a pivot with the left hand grasping the mattress edge and the right hand pushing on the mattress above the elbow, then slide your legs over the side of the mattress
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the best direction provided by the nurse. This method involves reaching over to the left side rail with the right hand, pulling the body onto its side, bending the upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and pushing down to elevate the trunk. This approach helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, reducing strain on the back. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that are not suitable for a client recovering from a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion and could potentially cause harm or discomfort.
3. A client has a prescription for Clindamycin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
- C. Discontinue the medication if diarrhea occurs.
- D. Expect to have increased appetite while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Clindamycin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Clindamycin can cause esophageal irritation, so taking it with a full glass of water helps minimize this risk. Avoiding taking the medication with food is not necessary. If diarrhea occurs, clients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Clindamycin is not known to cause increased appetite.
4. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.
- A. Ferritin
- B. Gastric enzymes
- C. Intrinsic factor
- D. Erythropoietin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.
5. The term teratogen refers to __________.
- A. any environmental agent that causes damage during the prenatal period
- B. a limited time span during which a part of the body is biologically prepared to develop rapidly
- C. a rapid period of prenatal neurological development
- D. a synthetic hormone used to prevent miscarriage
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'any environmental agent that causes damage during the prenatal period.' A teratogen is any substance or factor that can cause harm to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because it describes a critical period, not a teratogen. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a specific period of development, not a teratogen. Choice D is incorrect because it describes a synthetic hormone, not a teratogen.
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