Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?

• A. Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.
• B. Your child is likely to benefit from physical therapy and exercise.
• C. This condition can be cured with early intervention and treatment.
• D. The disease is caused by inflammation in the muscles, which leads to weakness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.

2. Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?

• A. Primary aldosteronism
• B. Essential hypertension
• C. White coat hypertension
• D. Prehypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is a common cause of secondary hypertension. In primary aldosteronism, there is an overproduction of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion, ultimately resulting in high blood pressure. Essential hypertension (Choice B) is the most common type of hypertension, but it is considered primary hypertension, not secondary. White coat hypertension (Choice C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety but not in daily life. Prehypertension (Choice D) is a condition where blood pressure levels are elevated but not high enough to be classified as hypertension.

3. What aspect of hormonal contraceptives places a woman at the greatest risk for the development of blood clots?

• A. Hormonal contraceptives increase serum triglyceride and cholesterol levels.
• B. Hormonal contraceptives increase platelet levels.
• C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors.
• D. Hormonal contraceptives cause injury to blood vessel linings.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors, particularly factors II, VII, IX, and X. This elevation in clotting factors can predispose individuals to thromboembolic events, including blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormonal contraceptives do not have a significant effect on serum triglycerides and cholesterol, platelet levels, or causing direct injury to blood vessel linings as the primary mechanism for clot formation.

4. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What therapeutic effect is expected from this medication?

• A. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms
• B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction
• C. Improvement in erectile function
• D. Relief of pain associated with BPH

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms. Finasteride works by reducing the size of the prostate gland, which in turn helps alleviate urinary symptoms such as frequency, urgency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying of the bladder. Choice B is incorrect as while finasteride can improve urine flow indirectly by reducing prostate size, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride is not intended to improve erectile function. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does not primarily provide relief from pain associated with BPH.

5. Which of the following chronic inflammatory skin disorders is characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation?

• A. Psoriasis
• B. Melanoma
• C. Atopic dermatitis
• D. Urticaria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Psoriasis is the correct answer. Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by angiogenesis, immune cell activation (particularly T cells), and keratinocyte proliferation. Choice B, Melanoma, is a type of skin cancer involving melanocytes, not characterized by the features mentioned. Choice C, Atopic dermatitis, is a different inflammatory skin condition associated with pruritus and eczematous lesions, not primarily characterized by angiogenesis. Choice D, Urticaria, is a skin condition characterized by hives and wheals due to histamine release, not typically involving the features mentioned in the question.

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