the parents of a 3 year old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boys late ambulation and frequent falls subsequent muscle bio
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching point that the physician should include when explaining Duchenne muscular dystrophy to the parents is that 'Your child may develop breathing difficulties as the disease progresses.' Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a progressive condition that affects muscle strength, including respiratory muscles, leading to breathing difficulties as the disease advances. Choice B is incorrect because while physical therapy and exercise can help maintain muscle function and mobility, they do not cure the condition. Choice C is incorrect because Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder with no known cure. Choice D is incorrect as Duchenne muscular dystrophy is primarily characterized by a lack of dystrophin protein due to genetic mutations, not inflammation in the muscles.

2. A client with a history of rheumatic fever presents with signs of heart failure. What is the likely underlying cause?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mitral valve stenosis. Rheumatic fever can lead to scarring and thickening of the heart valves, often affecting the mitral valve. This stenosis can impede blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, eventually causing heart failure. Choice A, infective endocarditis, is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, and is not directly related to rheumatic fever. Choice B, coronary artery disease, involves the obstruction of coronary arteries supplying the heart muscle with blood, leading to ischemia and not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Choice D, aortic regurgitation, is the backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle and is not a common consequence of rheumatic fever.

3. Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains are birthmarks that usually fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and fade over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (Mongolian spots) are blue-gray birthmarks commonly found on the lower back and buttocks of infants, which typically fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also known as salmon patches, are pink or red birthmarks that usually fade within the first few years of life. Choice D is correct because all the mentioned birthmarks tend to diminish as the child grows, unlike choices A, B, and C which do not fade or regress with age.

4. Prior to leaving on a backpacking trip to Southeast Asia, a college student has received a tetanus booster shot. This immunization confers protection by way of what immune process?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active artificial immunity. A tetanus booster shot confers protection through active artificial immunity. Active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies in response to an antigen, providing long-lasting protection. In this case, the tetanus booster shot triggers the student's immune system to produce specific antibodies against tetanus toxins. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because passive immunity does not involve the individual's immune system producing antibodies; instead, it involves the direct transfer of antibodies from another source (natural or artificial) for immediate, but temporary, protection.

5. Why is testosterone therapy prescribed for a 70-year-old man being treated for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary reason for prescribing testosterone therapy for osteoporosis in men is to restore testosterone levels, not specifically to increase bone density. Testosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density, so by restoring testosterone levels, it indirectly helps in maintaining bone density. Choices A and B are partially correct but do not address the primary reason for testosterone therapy in this context. Choice C is incorrect as the main focus of testosterone therapy in osteoporosis treatment is not related to enhancing sexual performance.

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