a 23 year old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup the primary care provider determines that the fetus has
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

2. What are direct effects of antibodies? (Select ONE that does not apply):

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The direct effects of antibodies include neutralization, agglutination, and precipitation. Antibodies neutralize pathogens by binding to them and preventing their harmful effects. Agglutination involves the clumping together of pathogens, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them. Precipitation refers to the process where antibodies bind to soluble antigens, forming large complexes that are easily removed from the body. Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is an indirect effect of antibodies where phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens opsonized by antibodies, not a direct effect.

3. A client is admitted with a suspected aortic dissection. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for emergency surgery. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening emergency that often necessitates immediate surgical intervention to prevent rupture and further complications. Administering antihypertensive medications (choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority over surgical intervention. While maintaining blood pressure with intravenous fluids (choice C) is important, the urgent need for surgery takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is essential for assessing renal function but is not the priority in this critical situation.

4. A nurse is administering testosterone to a patient with hypogonadism. What outcome indicates that the treatment is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Improved secondary sexual characteristics.' Testosterone therapy in patients with hypogonadism typically leads to improved secondary sexual characteristics, which include increased muscle mass and libido. While increased libido (choice A) and increased muscle mass (choice B) are effects of testosterone therapy, they are more specific outcomes related to secondary sexual characteristics. Decreased sperm count (choice D) would not be an expected outcome of testosterone therapy for hypogonadism, as testosterone is essential for sperm production.

5. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.

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