Nursing Elites

1. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgD

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

2. A patient is taking alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Take the medication in the morning with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes.
• C. Take the medication before bed to ensure absorption during sleep.
• D. Take the medication with milk to enhance calcium absorption.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken in the morning with a full glass of water and the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with food as it can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication before bed increases the risk of esophageal irritation and reduces absorption due to lying down. Choice D is also incorrect because taking alendronate with milk or other calcium-rich foods can decrease its absorption.

3. When a child jumps out of the tub, crying and stating her feet are 'burning,' what pathophysiologic principle is responsible for this response?

• A. Pain receptors (nociceptors) have been activated in response to a thermal stimulus.
• B. The child's skin thermal receptors have undergone adaptation.
• C. The child is exhibiting a psychogenic pain response due to anxiety.
• D. The child is experiencing a conditioned pain response based on previous experiences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The child's reaction is due to the activation of nociceptors, which are pain receptors that respond to thermal stimuli. This response is an immediate protective mechanism to prevent tissue damage caused by extreme temperatures. Option B is incorrect because adaptation does not explain the child's immediate and intense response. Option C is incorrect as there is a clear physical stimulus present, ruling out a psychogenic response. Option D is incorrect as the child's response is not based on previous experiences but rather on the current thermal stimulus.

4. What is the cause of swelling during acute inflammation?

• A. Collagenase
• B. Fluid exudate
• C. Lymphocytic margination
• D. Anaerobic glycolysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swelling during acute inflammation is primarily caused by the accumulation of fluid exudate in the affected tissues. This fluid exudate contains proteins and cells that leak from blood vessels due to increased vascular permeability. Collagenase (Choice A) is an enzyme that breaks down collagen and is not directly responsible for swelling. Lymphocytic margination (Choice C) is the process where white blood cells line up along the blood vessel walls, which does not directly cause swelling. Anaerobic glycolysis (Choice D) is a metabolic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen and is not related to the mechanism of swelling in acute inflammation.

5. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

• A. Suprapubic pain
• B. Periorbital edema
• C. Low serum creatinine level
• D. Palpable kidneys

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Palpable kidneys. Polycystic kidney disease often leads to the development of multiple fluid-filled cysts within the kidneys, causing them to enlarge. Enlarged kidneys can be palpated during a physical examination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suprapubic pain is not a typical clinical manifestation of polycystic kidney disease. Periorbital edema is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome or heart failure. Low serum creatinine level is not expected in patients with renal impairment due to polycystic kidney disease; instead, elevated serum creatinine levels are more likely.

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