Nursing Elites

1. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgD

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

2. A female patient is concerned about the side effects of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What common side effect should the nurse explain?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased libido
• D. Decreased energy levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) due to hormonal changes. Patients should be informed about this possibility as part of their treatment plan. Hair loss (Choice B) is not a common side effect of HRT. Increased libido (Choice C) and decreased energy levels (Choice D) are not typically associated with HRT side effects. Therefore, the nurse should focus on discussing weight gain with the patient.

3. Prior to administering iodoquinol (Yodoxin), what assessment should the nurse make?

• A. Assess for allergy to iodine.
• B. Note the time the patient last ate.
• C. Assess for skin eruptions.
• D. Assess for ophthalmic symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering iodoquinol (Yodoxin), the nurse should assess for allergy to iodine since iodoquinol is a medication containing iodine. Assessing for skin eruptions (choice C) and ophthalmic symptoms (choice D) are not specifically related to iodoquinol administration. Noting the time the patient last ate (choice B) may be relevant for certain medications but is not directly related to assessing for an allergy to iodine in this case.

4. Which of the following disorders is more likely associated with blood in stool?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Crohn's disease
• C. Irritable bowel syndrome
• D. Colon cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Colon cancer is more likely associated with blood in stool due to the presence of bleeding from the tumor in the colon. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation but not blood in stool. Crohn's disease (Choice B) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but bloody stools are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not typically cause blood in stool. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Colon cancer.

5. A patient is diagnosed with ischemic heart disease. She is prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). What effect will this medication provide in the treatment of ischemic heart disease?

• A. Increase platelets
• B. Decrease platelets
• C. Promote angiogenesis
• D. Prevent thrombus formation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication that promotes the growth of white blood cells. In the context of ischemic heart disease, promoting angiogenesis, the formation of new blood vessels, can improve blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing ischemia and potentially improving cardiac function. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choices A and B are incorrect because filgrastim does not directly affect platelet levels. Choice D is also incorrect as filgrastim does not prevent thrombus formation.

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