a 23 year old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup the primary care provider determines that the fetus has
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam

1. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.

2. A nurse is educating a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Walking is crucial in improving circulation in peripheral artery disease; therefore, the client should not avoid walking for long periods. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements for a client with PAD. Inspecting feet daily helps in early detection of sores or wounds, wearing compression stockings improves circulation, and avoiding smoking helps prevent further damage to arteries in PAD.

3. A female patient is concerned about the side effects of oral contraceptives. What should the nurse explain as a common side effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of oral contraceptives due to hormonal changes. It is essential for healthcare providers to inform patients about this possibility to manage expectations. Choice A, increased energy levels, is not a common side effect of oral contraceptives. Choice B, decreased libido, can be a side effect for some individuals but is not as common as weight gain. Choice D, hair loss, is not typically associated with oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to address the patient's concerns by discussing the more prevalent side effects like weight gain.

4. A patient is starting on alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime can increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect as taking alendronate with milk can reduce its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance its effectiveness.

5. When a healthcare professional is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the healthcare professional calls these erythrocytes:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythrocytes with an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin are called hypochromic. Hyperchromic refers to erythrocytes with an abnormally high concentration of hemoglobin. Macrocytic indicates larger than normal red blood cells, while microcytic refers to smaller than normal red blood cells. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct term is hypochromic.

Similar Questions

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A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
A patient is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the drug is having the desired effect?
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