ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
- A. IgG
- B. IgA
- C. IgM
- D. IgD
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.
2. Stress-induced cortisol hormone secretion is associated with:
- A. Increased growth hormone level
- B. Regulation of the stress response
- C. Increased thyroid-stimulating hormone
- D. Depressed adrenal gland function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regulation of the stress response. Cortisol plays a crucial role in regulating the body's response to stress by modulating various physiological processes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stress-induced cortisol hormone secretion is not directly associated with increased growth hormone levels, increased thyroid-stimulating hormone, or depressed adrenal gland function.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with an altered level of consciousness and needs to assess the withdrawal reflex. Which action should the healthcare provider perform?
- A. Apply a painful stimulus to see if the client pulls away.
- B. Check for pupil response to light.
- C. Assess the client's response to verbal commands.
- D. Observe the client's reaction to a cold stimulus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The withdrawal reflex is assessed by applying a painful stimulus and observing if the client pulls away. This response indicates a functioning reflex arc. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve testing the withdrawal reflex specifically. Checking for pupil response to light assesses the pupillary reflex, assessing the client's response to verbal commands evaluates their cognitive function, and observing the client's reaction to a cold stimulus tests for a different type of sensory response.
4. A patient with systemic candidiasis has been prescribed flucytosine. The nurse should be aware of the need to administer this drug with which of the following?
- A. Vitamin D and calcium supplements
- B. Fluconazole (Diflucan)
- C. Amphotericin B
- D. Penicillin G
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amphotericin B. When treating systemic candidiasis, Amphotericin B is the drug of choice, not flucytosine. Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used to treat severe fungal infections like systemic candidiasis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because vitamin D and calcium supplements, fluconazole, and penicillin G are not the drugs of choice for treating systemic candidiasis.
5. A 1-year-old child will receive her scheduled MMR vaccination shortly. The nurse should teach the child's parents that she may develop what possible adverse effect related to the administration of this vaccine?
- A. Cough and fever
- B. Pallor and listlessness
- C. Serum sickness
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough and fever. After receiving the MMR vaccine, some children may experience mild adverse effects such as a low-grade fever and a mild cough. These symptoms are normal reactions to the vaccine and indicate that the child's immune system is responding appropriately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pallor and listlessness, serum sickness, nausea, and vomiting are not common adverse effects associated with the MMR vaccine in children.
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