ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Which of the following disorders is more likely associated with blood in stool?
- A. Gastroesophageal reflux
- B. Crohn's disease
- C. Irritable bowel syndrome
- D. Colon cancer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Colon cancer is more likely associated with blood in stool due to the presence of bleeding from the tumor in the colon. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation but not blood in stool. Crohn's disease (Choice B) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but bloody stools are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not typically cause blood in stool. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Colon cancer.
2. A patient is taking raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), primarily works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This mechanism of action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by maintaining or improving bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather helps in preserving existing bone. Choice C is incorrect because raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys; instead, it acts on bone tissue. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines but rather focuses on bone health.
3. In a patient with renal failure secondary to an overdose of a nephrotoxic drug, which assessment findings would the nurse recognize as being most suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis?
- A. Frequent infections and low neutrophil levels
- B. Fatigue and increased heart rate
- C. Agitation and changes in cognition
- D. Increased blood pressure and peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Impaired erythropoiesis refers to a decreased production of red blood cells. This can lead to anemia, resulting in symptoms like fatigue and increased heart rate (Choice B). However, the question specifically asks about assessment findings suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. In this context, frequent infections and low neutrophil levels (Choice A) are more directly related to impaired erythropoiesis due to the impact of anemia on the immune system. Frequent infections are common in anemia due to a compromised immune response, and low neutrophil levels can be seen in conditions of impaired erythropoiesis. Agitation and changes in cognition (Choice C) are more indicative of neurological issues, while increased blood pressure and peripheral edema (Choice D) are commonly associated with renal failure but not specifically related to impaired erythropoiesis.
4. When a child jumps out of the tub, crying and stating her feet are 'burning,' what pathophysiologic principle is responsible for this response?
- A. Pain receptors (nociceptors) have been activated in response to a thermal stimulus.
- B. The child's skin thermal receptors have undergone adaptation.
- C. The child is exhibiting a psychogenic pain response due to anxiety.
- D. The child is experiencing a conditioned pain response based on previous experiences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The child's reaction is due to the activation of nociceptors, which are pain receptors that respond to thermal stimuli. This response is an immediate protective mechanism to prevent tissue damage caused by extreme temperatures. Option B is incorrect because adaptation does not explain the child's immediate and intense response. Option C is incorrect as there is a clear physical stimulus present, ruling out a psychogenic response. Option D is incorrect as the child's response is not based on previous experiences but rather on the current thermal stimulus.
5. A 30-year-old woman presents with joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
- C. Psoriatic arthritis
- D. Dermatomyositis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic lupus erythematosus. Joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity are classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus. Choice A, Rheumatoid arthritis, is incorrect as it typically presents with symmetric joint involvement and morning stiffness. Psoriatic arthritis (Choice C) is characterized by joint pain associated with psoriasis, which is not described in the case. Dermatomyositis (Choice D) presents with muscle weakness, skin rash, and elevated muscle enzymes, different from the symptoms presented in the case.
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