ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Which of the following disorders is more likely associated with blood in stool?
- A. Gastroesophageal reflux
- B. Crohn's disease
- C. Irritable bowel syndrome
- D. Colon cancer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Colon cancer is more likely associated with blood in stool due to the presence of bleeding from the tumor in the colon. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation but not blood in stool. Crohn's disease (Choice B) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but bloody stools are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not typically cause blood in stool. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Colon cancer.
2. In nephritic syndrome compared to nephrotic syndrome, there is:
- A. higher amounts of albuminuria.
- B. negligible hematuria or absence of hematuria.
- C. presence of red blood cell casts in the urine.
- D. hypoalbuminemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In nephritic syndrome, the presence of red blood cell casts in the urine is a characteristic finding, reflecting glomerular inflammation and damage. This differentiates it from nephrotic syndrome, where red blood cell casts are typically absent. Choice A is incorrect because nephritic syndrome usually presents with less albuminuria compared to nephrotic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as hematuria is a common feature of nephritic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as hypoalbuminemia is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome.
3. What action is specific to hormonal contraceptives and should be taught to this woman?
- A. The cervical mucus is altered to prevent sperm penetration.
- B. The release of follicle-stimulating hormone is increased to block fertility.
- C. The maturation of the endometrial lining is activated by the contraceptive.
- D. The pituitary gland increases the synthesis and release of luteinizing hormone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action specific to hormonal contraceptives that should be taught to the woman is that they alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm penetration. This mechanism helps in preventing pregnancy by reducing the chances of sperm reaching the egg. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is inaccurate as hormonal contraceptives work by inhibiting ovulation rather than increasing follicle-stimulating hormone release. Choice C is incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not activate the maturation of the endometrial lining; instead, they modify it to prevent implantation. Choice D is also incorrect as hormonal contraceptives do not stimulate the pituitary gland to increase luteinizing hormone synthesis and release.
4. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:
- A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
- B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
- C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
- D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.
5. A patient is starting on a statin medication for hyperlipidemia. What critical instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects.
- B. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast to improve absorption.
- C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication to reduce the risk of liver damage.
- D. Take the medication with a high-fat meal to increase its effectiveness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Statins like atorvastatin should be taken at night to reduce the risk of muscle pain and other side effects. Taking the medication with a high-fat meal (choice D) is not recommended as it can decrease the effectiveness of the medication. Alcohol consumption (choice C) should be moderated but does not need to be completely avoided unless contraindicated. Taking the medication with breakfast (choice B) may not be as effective as taking it at night due to the circadian rhythm of cholesterol synthesis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access