ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Which of the following disorders is more likely associated with blood in stool?
- A. Gastroesophageal reflux
- B. Crohn's disease
- C. Irritable bowel syndrome
- D. Colon cancer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Colon cancer is more likely associated with blood in stool due to the presence of bleeding from the tumor in the colon. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) typically presents with heartburn and regurgitation but not blood in stool. Crohn's disease (Choice B) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms, but bloody stools are more commonly associated with ulcerative colitis. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not typically cause blood in stool. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Colon cancer.
2. When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?
- A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
- B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
- C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
- D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.
3. Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of asthma?
- A. Chronic inflammation of the bronchial lining
- B. Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction
- C. Damage to alveoli reducing lung elasticity
- D. Overproduction of mucus by the goblet cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Narrowing of the airway due to bronchoconstriction." In asthma, there is an inflammatory response that leads to bronchoconstriction, causing the airways to narrow and making it difficult to breathe. Choice A is incorrect as chronic inflammation is a feature of asthma but not the primary pathophysiological mechanism. Choice C is incorrect as damage to alveoli is more characteristic of conditions like emphysema. Choice D is incorrect as overproduction of mucus is a feature of chronic bronchitis, not asthma.
4. A student nurse was asked which of the following best describes dementia. Which of the following best describes the condition?
- A. Memory loss as a natural consequence of aging
- B. Difficulty coping with physical and psychological changes
- C. Severe cognitive impairment that occurs rapidly
- D. Loss of cognitive abilities, impairing the ability to perform activities of daily living
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dementia is characterized by a loss of cognitive abilities that impairs the individual's capacity to perform activities of daily living. Choice A is incorrect because dementia is not simply memory loss related to aging but involves broader cognitive deficits. Choice B is incorrect as it does not capture the comprehensive cognitive decline seen in dementia. Choice C is incorrect as dementia typically progresses gradually rather than rapidly, and it is not solely about severe cognitive impairment but also impacts daily functioning.
5. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important contraindication should the nurse emphasize during patient education?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. History of hypertension
- C. History of peptic ulcer disease
- D. Use of antihypertensive medications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use. While a history of hypertension or peptic ulcer disease may require caution, they are not absolute contraindications like the concomitant use of nitrates.
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