Nursing Elites

1. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include regarding the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Oral contraceptives are 100% effective when taken correctly.
• B. Oral contraceptives are effective immediately after starting.
• C. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with antibiotics.
• D. Oral contraceptives are less effective if taken with food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oral contraceptives can be less effective when taken with certain antibiotics as they may interfere with the contraceptive's efficacy, potentially leading to decreased effectiveness. Therefore, patients should be advised to use additional contraception methods if they are also taking antibiotics. Choice A is incorrect because while oral contraceptives are highly effective, they are not 100% foolproof. Choice B is incorrect as oral contraceptives may take some time to reach their full effectiveness after starting. Choice D is incorrect since taking oral contraceptives with food does not necessarily impact their effectiveness.

2. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
• D. Increased risk of bone fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Choice A is incorrect because androgen therapy usually does not significantly increase the risk of liver dysfunction. Choice C is incorrect as androgen therapy does not increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it is sometimes used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Choice D is also incorrect as androgen therapy is more likely to improve bone density and reduce the risk of fractures.

3. An oncology nurse is providing care for an adult patient who is currently immunocompromised. The nurse is aware of the physiology involved in hematopoiesis and immune function, including the salient role of cytokines. What is the primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis?

• A. Cytokines perform phagocytosis in response to bacterial and protozoal infections.
• B. Cytokines perform a regulatory role in the development of diverse blood cells.
• C. Cytokines play a significant role in the formation of all blood cells.
• D. Cytokines are produced in response to the presence of antibodies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary role of cytokines in maintaining homeostasis is to perform a regulatory function in the development of diverse blood cells. Cytokines act as signaling molecules that regulate the immune response and hematopoiesis. Choice A is incorrect because cytokines do not perform phagocytosis; they regulate immune responses. Choice C is incorrect because while cytokines are involved in the formation of some blood cells, they are not considered the basic 'building blocks' of all blood cells. Choice D is incorrect because cytokines are not formed in response to antibodies, but rather play a role in the immune response to various stimuli.

4. What are the major mechanisms of spinal cord injuries?

• A. Hypoextension, expansion, hyperflexion
• B. Hyperflexion, expansion, hypometabolism
• C. Hypermetabolism, compression, hyperextension
• D. Hyperextension, hyperflexion, compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spinal cord injuries commonly occur due to hyperextension, hyperflexion, and compression. Hyperextension and hyperflexion refer to the excessive bending or stretching of the spinal cord, while compression is the exertion of pressure on the spinal cord. These mechanisms can lead to damage such as contusions, lacerations, and compression of the spinal cord. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the major mechanisms of spinal cord injuries.

5. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.

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