ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
- C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
- D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.
2. A 17-year-old woman has come to the clinic requesting emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. What medication is the clinician most likely to prescribe?
- A. Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
- B. Mifepristone (RU-486)
- C. Ulipristal acetate (ella)
- D. Estradiol (Estrace)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levonorgestrel (Plan B). Levonorgestrel is the most commonly prescribed medication for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse. It is effective when taken within 72 hours after intercourse, with better efficacy the sooner it is taken. Choice B, Mifepristone (RU-486), is not indicated for emergency contraception but is used for medical abortion. Choice C, Ulipristal acetate (ella), is another option for emergency contraception that is effective up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse. Choice D, Estradiol (Estrace), is not used for emergency contraception.
3. A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is frustrated by tremors associated with the disease. How should the nurse explain why these tremors occur? Due to the demyelination of neurons that occurs in MS:
- A. there is an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine, leading to tremors.
- B. there is a disruption in nerve impulse conduction, causing tremors.
- C. muscles are unable to receive impulses, resulting in tremors.
- D. the reflex arc is disrupted, leading to muscle tremors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In multiple sclerosis (MS), demyelination of neurons disrupts nerve impulse conduction. This disruption in nerve impulses can lead to tremors, explaining why the client experiences tremors in MS. Choice A is incorrect because tremors in MS are primarily due to nerve conduction issues, not an imbalance in acetylcholine and dopamine. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the process; the issue lies in nerve impulses, not the muscle's ability to receive them. Choice D is incorrect as the primary cause of tremors in MS is the disruption in nerve impulse conduction, not the reflex arc being disrupted.
4. When treating a patient for a fungal infection with IV amphotericin B, what should the nurse consistently monitor the patient's levels of to prevent drug discomfort?
- A. sodium
- B. hemoglobin
- C. calcium
- D. leukocytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is being treated with IV amphotericin B for a fungal infection, it is crucial to monitor the patient's calcium levels consistently. IV amphotericin B can cause hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and most notably, hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels helps prevent drug-related discomfort and adverse effects. Sodium (Choice A), hemoglobin (Choice B), and leukocytes (Choice D) are not the primary parameters to monitor specifically for drug discomfort related to amphotericin B. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
5. A 21-year-old male is brought to the ED following a night of partying in his fraternity. His friends found him 'asleep' and couldn't get him to respond. They cannot recall how many alcoholic beverages he drank the night before. While educating a student nurse and the man's friends, the nurse begins by explaining that alcohol is:
- A. A water-soluble compound that is easily absorbed by the gastric lining of the stomach.
- B. Very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier.
- C. Able to reverse the transport of some substances to remove them from the brain.
- D. Very likely to cause sedation and therefore the client just needs to sleep it off.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alcohol is very lipid-soluble and rapidly crosses the blood–brain barrier, leading to its effects on the central nervous system and causing symptoms like sedation and unconsciousness. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol is not water-soluble; it is lipid-soluble. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol does not reverse the transport of substances from the brain. Choice D is incorrect as sedation from alcohol is not a reason to just 'sleep it off' in cases of alcohol poisoning, which can be life-threatening and requires medical attention.
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