ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
- C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
- D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.
2. What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find in a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis?
- A. Dilated bronchioles, constriction of peripheral blood vessels, decreased capillary permeability
- B. Asthma, deep vein thrombosis, hepatic encephalopathy
- C. Narrowing of the bronchioles, dilation of the peripheral blood vessels, increased capillary permeability
- D. Left-sided heart failure, pulmonary embolism, urinary tract infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In anaphylaxis, the client would present with narrowing of the bronchioles, dilation of the peripheral blood vessels, and increased capillary permeability. These manifestations lead to symptoms such as difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and swelling. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the typical clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis.
3. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
- A. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time
- B. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes
- C. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity
- D. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.
4. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?
- A. They improve treatment adherence.
- B. They reduce the duration of illness.
- C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
- D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.
5. Rhabdomyolysis can result in serious complications. In addition to muscle pain and weakness, a patient will complain of:
- A. paresthesias.
- B. bone pain.
- C. dark urine.
- D. diarrhea.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is dark urine. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition characterized by the breakdown of muscle tissue, leading to the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream. Myoglobin can cause the urine to appear dark or tea-colored, a condition known as myoglobinuria. This is a classic symptom of rhabdomyolysis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not typically present as direct symptoms of rhabdomyolysis. Paresthesias refer to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, bone pain is not a primary symptom of rhabdomyolysis, and diarrhea is not a common complaint associated with this condition.
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