ATI RN
RN Nursing Care of Children 2019 With NGN
1. A 14-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB). Which assessment findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Cyanosis and dyspnea
- B. Productive cough and high fever
- C. Barking cough and inspiratory stridor
- D. Pale laryngeal and dyspnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Barking cough and inspiratory stridor.' Classic signs of laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) include a barking cough, often described as a seal-like cough, and inspiratory stridor, which is a high-pitched sound heard during inspiration. These symptoms occur due to inflammation and narrowing of the upper airway. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical assessment findings of LTB. Cyanosis and dyspnea (Choice A) may occur in severe cases but are not specific to LTB. Productive cough and high fever (Choice B) are more indicative of lower respiratory tract infections. Pale laryngeal and dyspnea (Choice D) are not characteristic findings of LTB.
2. All of the following are seen in a child with measles. Which one is not?
- A. Reddened eyes
- B. Coryza
- C. Pustule
- D. Cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Measles typically presents with symptoms like reddened eyes, coryza (inflammation of the mucous membrane in the nose), and cough. However, pustules are not a common symptom of measles. Pustules are more characteristic of conditions like chickenpox rather than measles. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
3. Which is the most frequently used test for measuring visual acuity?
- A. Snellen letter chart
- B. Ishihara vision test
- C. Allen picture card test
- D. Denver eye screening test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Snellen letter chart is the most commonly used test for measuring visual acuity, particularly in school-age children and adults.
4. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:
- A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
- B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
- C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days
- D. Heart rate of 76/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days can indicate fluid retention, which is a sign of worsening heart failure and should be reported. This rapid weight gain suggests a fluid overload, putting the client at risk for complications. A heart rate of 90/min is slightly elevated but not as concerning as a sudden significant weight gain. The serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not directly indicate worsening heart failure. A heart rate of 76/min is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns related to heart failure.