Nursing Elites

1. A 14-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB). Which assessment findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Cyanosis and dyspnea
• B. Productive cough and high fever
• C. Barking cough and inspiratory stridor
• D. Pale laryngeal and dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Barking cough and inspiratory stridor.' Classic signs of laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) include a barking cough, often described as a seal-like cough, and inspiratory stridor, which is a high-pitched sound heard during inspiration. These symptoms occur due to inflammation and narrowing of the upper airway. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical assessment findings of LTB. Cyanosis and dyspnea (Choice A) may occur in severe cases but are not specific to LTB. Productive cough and high fever (Choice B) are more indicative of lower respiratory tract infections. Pale laryngeal and dyspnea (Choice D) are not characteristic findings of LTB.

2. Why is knowledge of developmental theories useful for the nurse?

• A. Allows the nurse to know exactly what to do when caring for pediatric patients
• B. Is predictable and aids in controlling the child’s development
• C. Is a set of facts that each child follows in a prescribed method
• D. Provides a framework to guide the nurse in caring for the patient

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Understanding developmental theories helps nurses anticipate and plan appropriate care based on the child’s developmental stage. Choice A is incorrect because developmental theories provide a framework but do not dictate exact actions. Choice B is incorrect as developmental processes are not entirely predictable and are not meant to control a child’s development. Choice C is incorrect as developmental theories are not a strict set of facts that all children follow in a prescribed manner, but rather guidelines for understanding and supporting a child's growth and development.

3. What is an important priority in dealing with the child suspected of having Wilms tumor?

• A. Intervening to minimize bleeding
• B. Monitoring temperature for infection
• C. Ensuring the abdomen is protected from palpation
• D. Teaching parents how to manage parenteral nutrition

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct priority in dealing with a child suspected of having Wilms tumor is ensuring the abdomen is protected from palpation. Palpating the abdomen could lead to tumor dissemination, which is crucial to prevent the spread of cancerous cells. Intervening to minimize bleeding, monitoring temperature for infection, and teaching parents how to manage parenteral nutrition are not the immediate priorities in suspected cases of Wilms tumor.

4. What is a common significant side effect of opioid administration?

• A. Euphoria
• B. Diuresis
• C. Constipation
• D. Allergic reactions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Constipation is one of the most common side effects of opioid administration due to the slowing down of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids affect the bowel movements, leading to constipation. Euphoria, while a possible effect, is less common than constipation. Diuresis is not a typical side effect of opioids; instead, urinary retention may occur. Allergic reactions are rare side effects of opioids, with symptoms such as rash, itching, or anaphylaxis.

5. What type of shock is characterized by a hypersensitivity reaction causing massive vasodilation and capillary leaks, which may occur with drug or latex allergy?

• A. Neurogenic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Hypovolemic shock
• D. Anaphylactic shock

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction that causes massive vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, leading to rapid fluid shifts and circulatory collapse if not treated promptly. Neurogenic, cardiogenic, and hypovolemic shocks have different etiologies.

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