Nursing Elites

1. A 14-month-old child is admitted to the hospital with laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB). Which assessment findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Cyanosis and dyspnea
• B. Productive cough and high fever
• C. Barking cough and inspiratory stridor
• D. Pale laryngeal and dyspnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Barking cough and inspiratory stridor.' Classic signs of laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) include a barking cough, often described as a seal-like cough, and inspiratory stridor, which is a high-pitched sound heard during inspiration. These symptoms occur due to inflammation and narrowing of the upper airway. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical assessment findings of LTB. Cyanosis and dyspnea (Choice A) may occur in severe cases but are not specific to LTB. Productive cough and high fever (Choice B) are more indicative of lower respiratory tract infections. Pale laryngeal and dyspnea (Choice D) are not characteristic findings of LTB.

2. The nurse is assessing a child with type 2 diabetes. The child is awake and alert with a serum glucose of 60 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer Insulin.
• B. Administer Epinephrine.
• C. Give 15 grams of carbohydrates.
• D. Give glucagon by injection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a conscious child with mild hypoglycemia, giving 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrates is the appropriate intervention. This can quickly raise blood glucose levels to prevent further complications. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower the glucose level, which is not suitable in this scenario. Administering epinephrine (Choice B) is not indicated for hypoglycemia. Glucagon (Choice D) is used for severe hypoglycemia with altered consciousness, not for mild cases where the child is awake and alert.

3. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer to a child diagnosed with Nephrotic Syndrome to decrease proteinuria?

• A. Albumin
• B. Prednisone
• C. Penicillin
• D. Furosemide (Lasix)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, is the primary treatment for Nephrotic Syndrome as it helps to reduce inflammation in the kidneys and decrease proteinuria by stabilizing the glomerular filtration barrier. Albumin is a protein replacement therapy and would not directly decrease proteinuria. Penicillin is an antibiotic that treats bacterial infections and is not used to manage Nephrotic Syndrome. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in managing fluid retention but does not specifically target proteinuria in Nephrotic Syndrome.

4. What is a common cause of acquired aplastic anemia in children?

• A. Deficient diet
• B. Ingestion of drugs such as chloramphenicol or antiepileptics
• C. Congenital defects
• D. Injury

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Acquired aplastic anemia in children is often caused by exposure to certain drugs, such as chloramphenicol or antiepileptics, which can lead to bone marrow failure and a decrease in all types of blood cells. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because aplastic anemia is not commonly caused by deficient diet, congenital defects, or injury in children.

5. The nurse is preparing to admit a child to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. The nurse understands that the peak age at onset for this disease is what?

• A. 2 to 4 years
• B. 5 to 7 years
• C. 8 to 10 years
• D. 11 to 13 years

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The peak age for the onset of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is typically between 5 and 7 years old. This age group is most affected due to the higher incidence of streptococcal infections in school-aged children, which can lead to this renal complication.

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