ATI RN
Psychology 2301 Exam 1
1. An inborn trait that is relatively permanent and differentiates one person from another is known as ________.
- A. genotype
- B. phenotype
- C. temperament
- D. characteristic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Temperament is the correct answer because it refers to an individual's inborn, relatively permanent trait that distinguishes one person from another. Genotype (choice A) refers to the genetic makeup of an organism, not necessarily a behavioral trait. Phenotype (choice B) is the observable characteristics of an organism resulting from the interaction between its genotype and the environment. Characteristic (choice D) is a broad term that can encompass various traits and features, but it does not specifically denote an inborn and relatively permanent trait that sets individuals apart.
2. While caring for a client receiving IV heparin, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Thrombocytopenia
- D. Leukopenia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is a known adverse effect associated with heparin therapy. It can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and should be closely monitored during treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with heparin use; hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of heparin; leukopenia is not a primary side effect of heparin therapy.
3. Which of the following foods provides the most protein?
- A. Beans
- B. Red peppers
- C. Asparagus
- D. Celery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Beans.' Beans are a rich source of plant-based protein, making them the best option among the listed foods for protein content. Red peppers, asparagus, and celery are not significant sources of protein compared to beans, hence they are incorrect choices for this question.
4. A nurse is reviewing the lab results of a client who has bulimia nervosa. The nurse should notify the provider of which of the following results?
- A. White Blood Cells 5,200/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin 14
- C. Magnesium 1.6
- D. Potassium 3.2
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 is below normal and requires provider notification, especially in clients with bulimia nervosa who may have electrolyte imbalances.
5. What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?
- A. Advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise
- B. Fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload
- C. Dietary recommendations, including a low-sodium diet
- D. Medication management, including diuretics and ACE inhibitors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99