Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypomagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.

2. A patient with chronic renal failure should avoid which of the following?

• A. Potassium
• B. Calcium
• C. Iron
• D. Zinc

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with chronic renal failure should avoid potassium due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively filter excess potassium from the blood, leading to hyperkalemia. Calcium, iron, and zinc do not need to be avoided specifically in chronic renal failure unless there are other underlying reasons or complications.

3. During a synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation, when the machine is activated and there is a pause, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Wait until the machine discharges
• B. Shout “all clear” and don’t touch the bed
• C. Make sure the client is all right
• D. Increase the joules and re-discharge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when there is a pause after activating the machine for synchronized cardioversion on a client in atrial fibrillation is to shout “all clear” and not touch the bed. This step is crucial to ensure the safety of everyone present by warning them that the machine will discharge, preventing anyone from being inadvertently shocked. Waiting for the machine to discharge (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to accidental injury. While ensuring the client is all right (choice C) is important, the immediate focus should be on safety during the procedure. Increasing the joules and re-discharging (choice D) without assessing the situation can pose risks to the client and the healthcare team.

4. For a patient on lithium therapy, which dietary recommendation is essential?

• A. Increase caffeine intake
• B. Increase sodium intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Increase fiber intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase sodium intake. Maintaining consistent sodium levels is crucial for patients on lithium therapy to prevent fluctuations in drug levels. Increasing caffeine intake (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interfere with lithium levels. While protein intake (Choice C) is important, it is not the essential dietary recommendation for patients on lithium therapy. Similarly, increasing fiber intake (Choice D) is not a key recommendation for these patients.

5. The nurse is teaching the client with peripheral vascular disease. Which intervention should the nurse discuss with the client?

• A. Keep the area between the toes dry.
• B. Wear comfortable, well-fitting shoes.
• C. Cut toenails straight across.
• D. A,B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry to prevent moisture-related skin issues and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes to prevent injury and promote circulation. Cutting toenails straight across is important to prevent ingrown toenails, but in this case, an arch cut can lead to injury. Therefore, choices A and B are correct, making option D the most appropriate answer. Choice C is incorrect in this context.

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