Nursing Elites

1. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Iron-deficiency anemia
• B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
• C. Aplastic anemia
• D. Erythropoietin deficiency anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice A) is more commonly caused by insufficient dietary iron intake or chronic blood loss. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (choice B) is usually due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia (choice C) is a bone marrow failure disorder characterized by pancytopenia (decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) rather than a deficiency in erythropoietin production.

2. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the heparin drip before initiating the Coumadin
• B. Check the client’s INR before beginning Coumadin
• C. Clarify the order with the healthcare provider as soon as possible
• D. Administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip before initiating Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Checking the client's INR before starting Coumadin is important but not the immediate action required. Clarifying the order with the healthcare provider is not necessary as both medications are commonly used together.

3. The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Patient holding squad
• C. Area support squad
• D. Surgical squad

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Patient Holding Squad is the module composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients. The other choices are incorrect because a 'Treatment squad' would typically involve a broader range of medical care, an 'Area support squad' is more general and focuses on providing overall support in a specific area, and a 'Surgical squad' would be specifically focused on surgical procedures rather than general medical care for minimal care patients.

4. A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?

• A. Obtain a court order for the surgery
• B. Sign the informed consent on behalf of the client
• C. Send the client to surgery without the consent form being signed
• D. Obtain a telephone consent from a family member, with the consent being witnessed by two healthcare providers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member witnessed by two healthcare providers is the appropriate action to ensure informed consent is obtained. Option A is not necessary and involves legal proceedings. Option B is not ethical as the nurse cannot sign the consent on behalf of the client. Option C is unsafe and violates the client's rights by proceeding without proper consent.

5. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?

• A. More than 30 years of age
• B. Had two multiple pregnancies
• C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
• D. Has a history of borderline hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A (More than 30 years of age) is not a direct contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B (Had two multiple pregnancies) is not a factor that contraindicates the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D (Has a history of borderline hypertension) is not a specific contraindication for oral contraceptives unless it is severe or uncontrolled hypertension.

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