ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. Which type of anemia is associated with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Iron-deficiency anemia
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
- C. Aplastic anemia
- D. Erythropoietin deficiency anemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Erythropoietin deficiency anemia. Chronic kidney disease often leads to anemia due to decreased production of erythropoietin. This hormone, produced by the kidneys, stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice A) is more commonly caused by insufficient dietary iron intake or chronic blood loss. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (choice B) is usually due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or pernicious anemia. Aplastic anemia (choice C) is a bone marrow failure disorder characterized by pancytopenia (decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) rather than a deficiency in erythropoietin production.
2. A patient has a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Long-term medications will probably include:
- A. Antacids.
- B. Antibiotics.
- C. Corticosteroids.
- D. Histamine2-receptor blockers.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Long-term medications for a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis probably include corticosteroids.
3. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Pap smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of:
- A. Changes in cell shape, size, and organization
- B. Presence of unexpected cell types
- C. Ischemic changes in cell sample
- D. Abnormally high numbers of cells
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is changes in cell shape, size, and organization (Choice A). Pap smears are performed to detect potential precancerous or cancerous conditions by examining the cells for any abnormalities in their shape, size, or organization. This helps in identifying early signs of cervical cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pap smears primarily focus on detecting cellular changes associated with cancer, not unexpected cell types, ischemic changes, or abnormally high numbers of cells.
4. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
- A. Hypotonia
- B. Hyperreflexia
- C. Muscle atrophy
- D. Fasciculations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.
5. The client being treated for esophageal varices has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube inserted to control the bleeding. The most important assessment is for the nurse to:
- A. Check that the hemostat is on the bedside
- B. Monitor IV fluids for the shift
- C. Regularly assess respiratory status
- D. Check that the balloon is deflated on a regular basis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Regularly assessing respiratory status is crucial when a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is inserted to control bleeding in esophageal varices.