ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. The client diagnosed with thalassemia, a hereditary anemia, is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. The cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. Which precaution should the nurse implement when initiating the transfusion?
- A. Start the transfusion at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes
- B. Re-crossmatch the blood until the antibodies are identified
- C. Have the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood
- D. Have the unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Starting the transfusion slowly at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes is essential when the cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. This precaution allows the nurse to monitor for any adverse reactions due to the antibodies. Re-crossmatching the blood until the antibodies are identified (choice B) may delay the transfusion process and put the client at risk. Having the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood (choice C) is not a standard practice and does not address the immediate need for precautions during transfusion. Having the unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client (choice D) is unrelated to the safe initiation of the transfusion and is not a precaution specific to managing antibodies in blood products.
2. The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess the client’s vital signs
- B. Start an IV with an 18-gauge needle
- C. Begin iced saline lavage
- D. A, B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client presenting with acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood are to assess the client’s vital signs and start an IV with an 18-gauge needle. Assessing vital signs helps in determining the client's current condition and response to treatment, while starting an IV is crucial for administering medications and fluids. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to stabilize the client and address potential bleeding. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices, making option D the most appropriate answer.
3. The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck’s traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
- A. The nurse removes the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin
- B. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side
- C. The staff turn the client to the unaffected side and the nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg
- D. The nurse asks the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Turning the client to the unaffected side helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Dorsiflexion of the foot on the affected leg helps maintain proper alignment and prevent foot drop. The incorrect choices are A and D. Removing the foam boot multiple times per day can disrupt traction, and asking the client to dorsiflex the foot may not be appropriate without ensuring proper alignment and direction from the healthcare provider.
4. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?
- A. High-protein
- B. High-carbohydrate
- C. Low-protein
- D. Low-fat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A low-fat diet is the most appropriate for a patient with a history of liver disease. This diet helps reduce liver stress and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein and high-carbohydrate diets can strain the liver and worsen the condition. A low-protein diet may be necessary in cases of liver disease with hepatic encephalopathy, but in general, a low-fat diet is recommended to support liver function and overall health.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypomagnesemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.