Nursing Elites

1. Under the health services support area concept, how is the medical care under the MEDCOM divided?

• A. Six geographical regions of the United States with command authority in each region
• B. Five levels of health service support, each providing different levels of health care services
• C. Primary and secondary health care regions, each containing a MEDDAC or MEDCEN
• D. Eight geographical areas of responsibility designated as health services support regions, each of which is subdivided into two or more health service areas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Under the health services support area concept, medical care under MEDCOM is divided into eight geographical areas of responsibility. Each of these areas is designated as a health services support region, and they are further subdivided into two or more health service areas. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how the medical care under MEDCOM is divided.

2. When a field medical element is not operational, it engages in training to achieve readiness for mobilization that involves all aspects of operation. Individuals must be proficient in their MOS/ASI and which of the following?

• A. Command and control procedures
• B. Computers and data processing
• C. Common soldier tasks
• D. Communications and automation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, when a field medical element is not operational, training is essential to prepare for mobilization. Proficiency in MOS/ASI (Military Occupational Specialty/Area of Specialization) is crucial, along with proficiency in common soldier tasks. Common soldier tasks encompass fundamental skills and knowledge that are essential for operational readiness and mobilization. Options A, B, and D are not as directly related to individual readiness for mobilization in this context.

3. The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?

• A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a non-narcotic analgesic
• B. Motrin (ibuprofen), an NSAID, PRN
• C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours
• D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours PRN

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the preferred analgesic in sickle cell crisis due to its potency and effectiveness in managing severe pain.

4. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

• A. The client will void a minimum of 30 mL per hour
• B. The client will have elastic skin turgor
• C. The client will have no adventitious breath sounds
• D. The client will have a serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.

5. In managing cystic fibrosis, which nutrition therapy is crucial for patients with pancreatic insufficiency?

• A. A low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea
• B. A low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status
• C. A high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function
• D. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy is vital for aiding digestion. This therapy helps compensate for the decreased production of digestive enzymes by the pancreas, enabling the proper breakdown and absorption of nutrients. Options A, B, and C are not the primary focus of nutrition therapy for cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency.

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