Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following converts starch to disaccharides, and this reaction occurs in the _____?

• A. pancreatic amylases, small intestine
• B. brush border enzymes, small intestine
• C. luminal enzymes, large intestine
• D. pancreatic amylases, pancreas

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pancreatic amylases break down starch into disaccharides in the small intestine. This process occurs in the small intestine, not the large intestine or pancreas. Brush border enzymes act on disaccharides to break them down into monosaccharides, while luminal enzymes are not specifically involved in the conversion of starch to disaccharides.

2. When is Prevident indicated?

• A. High caries risk
• B. Crown and bridge work
• C. Orthodontic decalcification
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.

3. A nurse is providing nutritional education to a client who is obese. The nurse should include in the information that which of the following gastrointestinal disorders is commonly associated with obesity?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Crohn’s disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is commonly associated with obesity due to increased abdominal pressure and other factors. Peptic ulcer disease (Choice A) is not commonly associated with obesity. Celiac disease (Choice C) is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption and is not directly linked to obesity. Crohn’s disease (Choice D) is a type of inflammatory bowel disease and is not specifically associated with obesity.

4. The nurse notes that the fall might also cause a possible head injury. The patient will be observed for signs of increased intracranial pressure which include:

• A. Narrowing of the pulse pressure
• B. Vomiting
• C. Periorbital edema
• D. A positive Kernig's sign

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Periorbital edema is a sign of increased intracranial pressure. It is caused by fluid accumulation around the eyes due to compromised drainage. Narrowing of the pulse pressure is more indicative of shock than increased intracranial pressure. While vomiting can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, it is not as specific as periorbital edema. A positive Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis, not increased intracranial pressure.

5. A nurse is teaching a parent about appropriate snack choices for her 9-month-old infant. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend?

• A. Skim milk
• B. Unsalted popcorn
• C. Graham crackers
• D. Raw carrots

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Graham crackers are an appropriate snack choice for a 9-month-old infant due to their texture and ease of consumption. Skim milk (Choice A) is not recommended for infants under 1 year old due to the potential risk of developing milk allergies. Unsalted popcorn (Choice B) can be a choking hazard for infants. Raw carrots (Choice D) are a potential choking hazard for a 9-month-old infant and may be difficult for them to chew and digest.

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