Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following converts starch to disaccharides, and this reaction occurs in the _____?

• A. pancreatic amylases, small intestine
• B. brush border enzymes, small intestine
• C. luminal enzymes, large intestine
• D. pancreatic amylases, pancreas

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pancreatic amylases break down starch into disaccharides in the small intestine. This process occurs in the small intestine, not the large intestine or pancreas. Brush border enzymes act on disaccharides to break them down into monosaccharides, while luminal enzymes are not specifically involved in the conversion of starch to disaccharides.

2. What is the initial major sign of acute renal failure?

• A. Oliguria
• B. Hematuria
• C. Proteinuria
• D. Glycosuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is often the initial major sign of acute renal failure. This reduction in urine output indicates that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (presence of protein in urine), and glycosuria (presence of glucose in urine) are not typically the initial major signs of acute renal failure. While they may be present in certain conditions, oliguria is the most common and critical indicator of acute renal failure.

3. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

• A. Regular Check-ups
• B. Regular Screening
• C. Self-Medication
• D. Immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

4. A client is prescribed a 1500-calorie diet. Thirty percent of the calories are to be derived from fat. How many grams of fat should the nurse tell the client to consume per day? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 21
• B. 49
• C. 60
• D. 50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the grams of fat, first, determine the calories from fat by multiplying the total calorie intake (1500 calories) by the percentage of calories from fat (30%), which equals 450 calories from fat. Since 1 gram of fat is equivalent to 9 calories, divide the total calories from fat (450) by the calories in 1 gram of fat (9) to get the answer in grams, which is 50. Therefore, the client should consume 50 grams of fat per day. Choice A (21), Choice B (49), and Choice C (60) are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given information.

5. What side effect is commonly associated with ECT?

• A. Transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Fractures
• D. Hypertension and increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, as Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is commonly associated with side effects such as transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation. While nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur, they are not as common as the memory-related side effects. Fractures (Choice C) are unlikely unless a mishap occurs during the procedure. Hypertension and increased heart rate (Choice D) might occur during the procedure due to the physiological stress of the treatment, but these are not the most commonly associated side effects. The rationale provided did not effectively explain this, so it's important to note that ECT is a procedure often used for severe depression and other mental illnesses, and understanding its side effects is crucial for patient safety and effective care.

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