ATI RN
Human Growth and Development Exam 1
1. __________, a strong type of painkiller used in labor and delivery, blocks sensation.
- A. Anesthetics
- B. Analgesics
- C. Anti-inflammatories
- D. Folic acids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Anesthetics, such as epidurals, are a strong type of painkiller used in labor and delivery that block sensation. They work by numbing the nerves in the lower part of the spine, providing pain relief during childbirth. Choice B, Analgesics, are pain relievers that reduce pain without causing loss of consciousness, but they are not as strong as anesthetics for labor pain. Choice C, Anti-inflammatories, are medications that reduce inflammation and do not directly block sensation like anesthetics. Choice D, Folic acids, are a type of B vitamin crucial for cell growth and metabolism, not used as painkillers in labor and delivery.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerin ointment to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply the ointment to the client's hairless chest
- B. Rub the ointment gently into the skin
- C. Cover the applied ointment with a transparent dressing
- D. Massage the ointment into the skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to apply the nitroglycerin ointment to a hairless area of the client's chest, back, or upper arms. This allows for better absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because rubbing the ointment gently into the skin may be appropriate, but the primary action is to ensure application on a hairless area. Choice C is incorrect as covering the ointment with a transparent dressing is not a standard practice for nitroglycerin ointment administration. Choice D is incorrect because massaging the ointment into the skin is not recommended, as it can alter absorption rates.
3. What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
- B. Sudden onset of seizures
- C. Bradycardia and altered pupil response
- D. Loss of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These symptoms occur due to the brain's increased pressure within the skull. Sudden onset of seizures (Choice B) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia and altered pupil response (Choice C) are signs of advanced or worsening IICP. Loss of consciousness (Choice D) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV fluid bolus of 500 mL over 4 hours to a client who is dehydrated. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 75 mL/hr.
- B. 100 mL/hr.
- C. 125 mL/hr.
- D. 150 mL/hr.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Setting the IV pump to 125 mL/hr ensures the correct infusion rate for delivering 500 mL over 4 hours. To calculate the mL/hr rate, divide the total volume to be infused (500 mL) by the total time for infusion (4 hours): 500 mL / 4 hours = 125 mL/hr. Choice A (75 mL/hr) is too low and would result in an insufficient infusion rate, potentially delaying fluid resuscitation. Choice B (100 mL/hr) would also be too low and not deliver the fluid within the specified time frame. Choice D (150 mL/hr) is too high and would infuse the fluid too quickly, potentially causing fluid overload and complications.
5. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to cough. Monitoring for a persistent dry cough is crucial as it may indicate the need for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to be monitored as adverse effects.
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