ATI RN
Human Growth and Development Exam Questions
1. Which statement about a blastocyst is true?
- A. It consists of a single cell.
- B. It is a structure that feeds the developing organism.
- C. Between the seventh and ninth days, it burrows deep into the uterine lining.
- D. It is a membrane that helps to keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The statement that is true about a blastocyst is that between the seventh and ninth days, it burrows deep into the uterine lining. This process, known as implantation, is essential for the blastocyst to establish a connection with the mother's body and receive nutrients for further development. It is a critical stage in prenatal development and sets the foundation for pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A blastocyst is not a single cell but rather a structure composed of many cells. It is not a structure that feeds the developing organism; instead, it implants in the uterine lining to receive nutrients. It is not a membrane that regulates temperature but plays a crucial role in the initial stages of pregnancy by implanting in the uterus.
2. A client has Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Wash hands with an alcohol-based hand rub.
- B. Place the client on contact precautions.
- C. Wear a mask when entering the client's room.
- D. Double-bag all linens before removing them from the room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile infection is to place the client on contact precautions. This helps prevent the spread of the infection to other clients. Washing hands with an alcohol-based hand rub is important for infection control but is not specific to preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile. Wearing a mask may be necessary for airborne precautions but is not the priority for Clostridium difficile infection. Double-bagging linens is not a standard practice for preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile.
3. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Administer antihistamines
- C. Administer corticosteroids
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions as it helps reverse the symptoms rapidly by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Antihistamines (Choice B) may help with mild allergic reactions but are not effective for severe cases. Corticosteroids (Choice C) are used to reduce inflammation and are typically not the first-line treatment for acute severe allergic reactions. Administering oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases, but epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction symptoms.
4. Dr. Singh believes that a basic psychosocial conflict, which is resolved along a continuum from positive to negative, determines healthy or maladaptive outcomes at each stage of development. Dr. Singh's beliefs are aligned with those of which theorist?
- A. G. Stanley Hall
- B. Sigmund Freud
- C. Erik Erikson
- D. B. F. Skinner
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dr. Singh's beliefs align with Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory of development. Erikson proposed that individuals go through a series of psychosocial stages, with each stage characterized by a basic conflict that must be resolved to achieve healthy development. This conflict is resolved along a continuum from positive to negative outcomes. Choice A, G. Stanley Hall, is incorrect as his work focused on adolescence and evolutionary psychology. Choice B, Sigmund Freud, is incorrect as his psychoanalytic theory is more focused on the unconscious mind and psychosexual stages. Choice D, B. F. Skinner, is incorrect as he is associated with behaviorism and operant conditioning, which is different from Erikson's psychosocial theory.
5. A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth.
- B. Provide a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet.
- C. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
- D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.
Correct answer: Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
Rationale: In a client with a serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level quickly to prevent life-threatening complications like arrhythmias. The correct answer is to prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push. This combination helps shift potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space, reducing serum potassium levels rapidly. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) by mouth may take several hours to work, making it a less effective immediate intervention. Providing a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet is important for long-term management but is not the most urgent action in this situation. While hemodialysis is a definitive treatment for hyperkalemia, it is not the first-line intervention for acute management of high potassium levels with cardiovascular manifestations.
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