Nursing Elites

1. A combined Apgar score of __________ indicates that the infant is in good physical condition.

• A. less than 3
• B. 3 or 4
• C. 5 or 6
• D. 7 or better

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A combined Apgar score of 7 or better indicates that the infant is in good physical condition. The Apgar score is a quick assessment of a newborn's overall health shortly after birth. It evaluates the baby's heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflexes, and color. A score of 7 or higher indicates that the baby is adjusting well to life outside the womb. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they represent scores that indicate the infant may need medical attention or assistance as they are below the threshold of 7 which signifies good physical condition.

2. By the twelfth week of pregnancy, __________.

• A. the sex of the fetus can be detected with ultrasound
• B. the mother can feel the movements of the fetus
• C. the fetus is viable and can survive if born early
• D. synchrony between fetal heart rate and motor activity peaks Answer: A Page Ref: 79 Skill Level: Understand Copyright © 2018 Laura E. Berk. All Rights Reserved. 6 Test Bank for Berk, Development Through the Lifespan, 7e Topic: Prenatal Development Difficulty Level: Moderate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: By the twelfth week of pregnancy, the sex of the fetus can be detected with ultrasound. Ultrasound technology allows for visualization of the developing fetus and identification of physical characteristics, such as sex, during prenatal appointments.

3. Which state of arousal is considered the most fleeting?

• A. Regular sleep
• B. REM sleep
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Quiet alertness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quiet alertness is indeed the most fleeting state of arousal. This state is characterized by a newborn infant being awake, calm, and attentive, but it is short-lived and transitions quickly to other states of arousal. Regular sleep, REM sleep, and drowsiness are not considered as brief and transitional as quiet alertness in newborn infants.

4. The most rapid prenatal changes take place in the period of the __________.

• A. zygote
• B. blastocyst
• C. embryo
• D. fetus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: embryo. The most rapid prenatal changes occur during the embryo stage, which spans from approximately 2 to 8 weeks after conception. This period is crucial as major organs and systems of the body develop rapidly, laying the foundation for future growth and development. The zygote stage is the initial single-celled entity formed by the union of sperm and egg, while the blastocyst stage involves the cluster of cells resulting from the zygote dividing and growing. The fetus stage follows the embryo stage and focuses on refining and growing existing structures rather than rapid development. Therefore, the embryo stage is where the most significant and rapid changes take place in prenatal development.

5. The information-processing perspective __________.

• A. examines separate aspects of thinking
• B. fails to consider biological influences on cognitive development
• C. applies only to children in cultures having formal schooling
• D. focuses on overall cognitive change

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The information-processing perspective focuses on how individuals process, store, and retrieve information. Choice A, 'examines separate aspects of thinking,' accurately reflects this perspective. The other choices are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because the information-processing perspective does consider biological influences on cognitive development. Choice C is incorrect as this perspective is not limited to children in cultures with formal schooling. Choice D is incorrect as the information-processing perspective does not focus on overall cognitive change, but rather on the specific processes involved in information processing.

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