Nursing Elites

1. A client with Graves' disease is being educated by a nurse about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?

• A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
• B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
• C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heartbeat.
• D. Propranolol promotes a decrease of thyroid hormone in my body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that is commonly used in Graves' disease to decrease symptoms such as tremors and fast heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland. Choice B is incorrect as Propranolol is not used to prevent excess glucose in the blood. Choice D is also incorrect as Propranolol does not directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Take off the nitroglycerin patch if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.

3. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

4. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action. Hyperkalemia can cause muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client to monitor for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia while taking Spironolactone.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has chronic angina. Treatment for the condition has been unsuccessful. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Sildenafil (Viagra)
• D. Ranolazine (Ranexa)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of chronic angina where initial treatment has not been successful, Ranolazine (Ranexa) is often prescribed. This medication helps by reducing the frequency of angina episodes. Atenolol, Nitroglycerin, and Sildenafil are also used in angina management but Ranolazine is more specifically indicated in cases of refractory angina where other treatments have failed.

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