Nursing Elites

1. While teaching a client starting therapy with rituximab, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to promptly address any signs of infection and ensure the client's safety during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to a serious complication requiring immediate attention.

2. A client has a new prescription for Tetracycline. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with milk.
• B. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Expect urine to turn dark yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client prescribed Tetracycline is to 'Avoid prolonged sun exposure.' Tetracycline can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to the sun's rays. This can lead to adverse reactions like sunburn or skin rashes. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to minimize sun exposure and wear protective clothing when outdoors. Choice A is incorrect because taking Tetracycline with milk can reduce its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take Tetracycline at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as Tetracycline does not typically cause dark yellow urine.

3. Medications classified as angiotensin II receptor agents typically end in?

• A. Sartan
• B. Ase
• C. Olol
• D. Pril

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Angiotensin II receptor agents belong to the drug class called angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). The generic names of ARBs usually end in -sartan, helping to identify this specific class of medications. Therefore, medications that end in -sartan are likely to be angiotensin II receptor agents. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because drugs ending in -ase (like streptokinase), -olol (like propranolol), and -pril (like lisinopril) typically belong to different drug classes with distinct mechanisms of action.

4. When teaching a client who has a prescription for Lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor for a persistent cough.
• C. Expect to have increased appetite.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken in the morning. Choice C is incorrect as Lisinopril is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as Lisinopril can lead to increased potassium levels in the blood, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary.

5. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

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