Nursing Elites

1. A client informs a healthcare professional about taking Gingko Biloba. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a client using Gingko Biloba?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Warfarin
• C. Digoxin
• D. Lisinopril

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba due to the potential interaction that can lead to suppressed coagulation and an increased risk of bleeding or hemorrhage. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and when combined with Gingko Biloba, which also has anticoagulant properties, the risk of bleeding complications is significantly heightened. Acetaminophen (Choice A), Digoxin (Choice C), and Lisinopril (Choice D) do not have significant interactions with Gingko Biloba compared to Warfarin. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, Digoxin is a medication for heart conditions, and Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor for hypertension.

2. In which of the following cases is Lansoprazole not used?

• A. Gastritis
• B. Peptic Ulcers
• C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
• D. Thalamus hypertrophy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor mainly used to treat conditions related to the stomach, such as gastritis, peptic ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Thalamus hypertrophy is not a condition that Lansoprazole is indicated for; it is used for gastrointestinal issues and not neurological conditions.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.

4. When teaching a client about a new prescription for Celecoxib, which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that taking Celecoxib increases the risk of a myocardial infarction due to its suppression of vasodilation. Celecoxib belongs to the class of NSAIDs known to have cardiovascular risks, including an increased risk of heart attacks. Choice B is incorrect because Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke. Choice C is incorrect because Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2 rather than COX-1. Choice D is incorrect because Celecoxib does not increase platelet aggregation; in fact, it inhibits platelet aggregation.

5. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

• A. 45 minutes to 18 hours
• B. 30 minutes to 12 hours
• C. 90 minutes to 36 hours
• D. 60 minutes to 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

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