Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever. Fever can be an indication of an infection, a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring and reporting fever promptly can help in early intervention to prevent further complications. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.

2. What classification of drug is Penicillin?

• A. Antiarrhythmic
• B. Anticonvulsant
• C. Antibacterial
• D. Mood stabilizer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Penicillin is classified as an antibacterial drug, specifically used to treat bacterial infections. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria, making it an effective treatment for various bacterial infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as Penicillin does not belong to these drug classifications. Penicillin does not have any direct effect on heart rhythm (antiarrhythmic), does not treat seizures (anticonvulsant), and is not used to stabilize mood (mood stabilizer).

3. What is the pharmacological action of metformin?

• A. Blocks stimulation of beta1 and beta2.
• B. Blocks vasoconstriction and aldosterone.
• C. Acts at many levels in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect.
• D. Decreases hepatic glucose production.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin's primary pharmacological action is to decrease hepatic glucose production, leading to lower blood sugar levels and improved insulin sensitivity in the liver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metformin does not block stimulation of beta1 and beta2 receptors, vasoconstriction, aldosterone, or act in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect. Therefore, these options are not reflective of metformin's mechanism of action.

4. A client is receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Leukocytosis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Fever

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hypertension when receiving epoetin alfa. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to increased blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension promptly. Leukocytosis refers to an increased white blood cell count and is not directly related to epoetin alfa treatment. Hyperkalemia is an elevated potassium level, which is not a common adverse effect of epoetin alfa. Fever is not a typical finding associated with epoetin alfa therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
• D. Expect a dry cough.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.

Similar Questions