ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?
- A. Administer subcutaneously in a large muscle mass to prevent injury.
- B. Ensure that the medication is kept at room temperature until just prior to administration.
- C. Invert vial gently to mix well before withdrawing dose.
- D. Discard vial after removing one dose of the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.
2. A client has a new prescription for Dabigatran. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Store the capsules in a pill organizer.
- C. Crush the medication before swallowing.
- D. Expect frequent headaches while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with food.' Taking Dabigatran with food is recommended to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect associated with this medication. Food can help minimize stomach irritation and improve tolerability. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Storing the capsules in a pill organizer (B) is a good practice for organization but not a specific instruction for this medication. Crushing the medication before swallowing (C) is not recommended for Dabigatran as it is available as a capsule and should be swallowed whole. Expecting frequent headaches while taking this medication (D) is not a common side effect of Dabigatran and should not be anticipated.
3. A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
- B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
- C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
- D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L, immediate gastric lavage is appropriate for severe toxicity. Gastric lavage can help lower the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 750 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?
- A. 125 mL/hr
- B. 100 mL/hr
- C. 150 mL/hr
- D. 200 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, divide the total volume by the total time: 750 mL / 6 hr = 125 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 125 mL/hr to infuse D5W 750 mL over 6 hours. Choice B (100 mL/hr) is incorrect because it does not accurately divide the total volume by the total time. Choice C (150 mL/hr) and Choice D (200 mL/hr) are incorrect as they are not the correct flow rates needed to infuse the D5W solution over the specified time period.
5. While caring for a client receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia, which finding should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Leukocytosis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Fever
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hypertension when receiving epoetin alfa. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to increased blood pressure. Leukocytosis (increased white blood cells) and hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) are not typically associated with epoetin alfa therapy. Fever is also not a common adverse effect of this medication.
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