Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Administer subcutaneously in a large muscle mass to prevent injury.
• B. Ensure that the medication is kept at room temperature until just prior to administration.
• C. Invert vial gently to mix well before withdrawing dose.
• D. Discard vial after removing one dose of the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.

2. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

4. A client reports taking Aspirin four times daily for a sprained wrist. Which of the following prescribed medications taken by the client is contraindicated with aspirin?

• A. Digoxin
• B. Metformin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can increase the effect of anticoagulants like warfarin, leading to an elevated risk of bleeding. Therefore, the concurrent use of aspirin and warfarin is generally contraindicated due to this potential interaction. Digoxin is not contraindicated with aspirin in most cases. Metformin and nitroglycerin do not have significant interactions with aspirin, making them less likely to be contraindicated in this scenario.

5. Which of the following medications is a bronchodilator?

• A. Albuterol
• B. Omeprazole
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Senna

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol is classified as a bronchodilator, which is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma by relaxing the muscles in the airways and increasing airflow to the lungs. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce stomach acid production, while ondansetron is an anti-nausea medication, and senna is a laxative.

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