ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for furosemide, a diuretic, is to take it in the morning to prevent nocturia. Taking it in the morning helps to prevent frequent urination during the night, allowing the client to have uninterrupted sleep. This timing also coincides with the body's natural diuretic response, which is typically more active during the day. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding foods high in potassium, taking it on an empty stomach, or limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
2. A client is receiving treatment with etoposide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Etoposide, a chemotherapeutic agent, commonly causes hypotension as an adverse effect. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a drop in blood pressure, to promptly intervene and prevent complications.
3. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Lansoprazole?
- A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
- B. Gastritis
- C. Hypertension
- D. Reflux
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat conditions related to excessive stomach acid production, such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, gastritis, and reflux. However, it is not indicated for the treatment of hypertension, which is managed using antihypertensive medications. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Hypertension.
4. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.
5. A client has a prescription for Clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Discontinue the medication if you experience dry mouth.
- B. Take the medication at the same time each day.
- C. Double the dose if you miss a dose.
- D. Avoid drinking orange juice while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: Taking Clonidine at the same time each day is crucial to ensure consistent blood levels and effectively manage blood pressure. Consistency in timing helps optimize the medication's effectiveness in controlling hypertension.
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