a nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for sinusitis the nurse should assess the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. After more than 5 days of use, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion. This occurs due to prolonged vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels, causing worsening nasal congestion. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine nasal drops. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with this medication.

2. A client with early Parkinson's disease has been prescribed pramipexole. What adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose, which may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Monitoring for hallucinations is crucial to ensure early detection and management to prevent any adverse outcomes. Choice B, increased salivation, is not a common adverse effect of pramipexole. Choice C, diarrhea, is not typically associated with pramipexole use. Choice D, discoloration of urine, is not a known adverse effect of pramipexole and is not typically a concern with this medication.

3. Which drug undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism in the liver. When administered orally, propranolol is extensively metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This process is known as first-pass hepatic metabolism, which significantly affects the drug's effectiveness and necessitates higher oral doses compared to other routes of administration. Heparin (Choice A) is not metabolized by the liver but excreted unchanged by the kidneys. Insulin (Choice B) is a peptide hormone that is not subject to significant first-pass metabolism. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is primarily metabolized in the blood and tissues, bypassing significant first-pass metabolism in the liver.

4. A child is prescribed Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO to be administered every 12 hr. The child weighs 44 lb. The available medication is amoxicillin suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should be given per dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dosage per administration: Convert the weight to kg (44 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 20 kg). Then, (20 mg/kg/day x 20 kg) / 2 (for every 12 hr dosing) = 200 mg per dose. (200 mg / 250 mg) x 5 mL = 4 mL per dose. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL of amoxicillin suspension per dose. Choice B, 5 mL, is incorrect because the calculation shows that 4 mL is the correct dose. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they are not in line with the calculated dosage based on the weight of the child and the concentration of the medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the nitroglycerin patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a 10- to 12-hour nitrate-free period daily, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to nitroglycerin. Cutting the patch in half is not recommended because it can alter the dosing and absorption rate, leading to inadequate symptom control. Taking off the patch for a headache is not necessary as headaches are a common side effect that may improve with continued use. Applying a new patch every 48 hours is not correct as it may not provide continuous symptom relief for angina.

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