Nursing Elites

1. A client has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Sedation
• B. Nasal congestion
• C. Productive cough
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. After more than 5 days of use, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion. This occurs due to prolonged vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels, causing worsening nasal congestion. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine nasal drops. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with this medication.

2. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. The client reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What should the nurse do?

• A. Administer the prescribed dose.
• B. Withhold the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form.
• D. Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should withhold the medication and inform the provider of the client's previous rash after taking penicillin. This history suggests a potential allergic reaction to penicillin, which can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis. Notifying the provider allows for an alternative antibiotic to be prescribed, considering the client's allergy to penicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering a medication that could potentially lead to a severe allergic reaction in the client. Administering the prescribed dose (Choice A) could be harmful due to the potential for an allergic reaction. Changing the prescription to an oral form (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue of a potential penicillin allergy. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice D) without consulting the provider may not be sufficient to prevent a severe allergic reaction.

3. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine is prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks why the provider prescribed Methylnaltrexone. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
• B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
• C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
• D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: 'The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.' Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unrelieved by laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It works by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the GI tract, which helps alleviate constipation without affecting pain relief or causing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone's primary action is related to managing constipation rather than increasing respirations, preventing dependence on Morphine, or enhancing pain relief when used alongside Morphine.

4. A client is taking Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take digoxin with your morning dose of colesevelam.
• B. Your sodium and potassium levels will be monitored periodically while taking colesevelam.
• C. Watch for bleeding or bruising while taking colesevelam.
• D. Take colesevelam with food and at least one glass of water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taking colesevelam, it should be administered with food and at least 8 oz of water to ensure proper absorption and reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Taking colesevelam with food also helps in binding to bile acids efficiently. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary instruction for taking colesevelam correctly or monitoring specific side effects associated with this medication.

5. During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Body temperature 35°C (95°F)
• B. Lung crackles
• C. Cool, dry skin
• D. Respiratory depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In severe Aspirin toxicity, respiratory depression is an anticipated finding due to the development of respiratory acidosis. Aspirin toxicity can lead to metabolic acidosis, causing the individual to hyperventilate initially to compensate. However, as the condition progresses, respiratory depression can occur, resulting in impaired gas exchange and respiratory acidosis.

Similar Questions