a nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for sinusitis the nurse should assess the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. After more than 5 days of use, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion. This occurs due to prolonged vasoconstriction of nasal blood vessels, causing worsening nasal congestion. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine nasal drops. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with this medication.

2. When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, what should the healthcare provider monitor the client's urine for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring urine for calcium is essential. Somatropin can lead to increased calcium levels in the urine, potentially increasing the risk of renal calculi formation. Therefore, assessing for calcium in the urine helps in early detection and prevention of this complication. Monitoring for bilirubin, protein, or potassium in the urine is not directly related to the effects of Somatropin and would not provide relevant information in this context.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of Hydromorphone IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional preparing to administer IV Hydromorphone to a client is to administer the medication over 5 minutes. This slow administration is crucial to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Administering the medication rapidly can lead to adverse effects. Option B, administering Naloxone prior to Hydromorphone, is incorrect because Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not as a routine pre-medication. Option C, assessing the client's blood pressure before administration, is important but not the immediate action to take to reduce adverse effects of Hydromorphone. Option D, injecting the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue, is incorrect as Hydromorphone is meant for intravenous administration for rapid onset of action.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.

5. What is a desired outcome of the drug Phenytoin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation. Phenytoin is primarily used as an antiepileptic medication to manage and prevent seizures. It does not directly impact symptoms of PTSD (Choice A), resolution of signs of infection (Choice B), or prevention or relief of bronchospasm (Choice D). Therefore, the desired outcome of Phenytoin is to control seizures effectively while avoiding excessive sedation.

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